davenporter
Puritan Board Freshman
Exegetical question on Phil. 1:18b-26. Does Paul *infallibly* know that he will be released from prison to go see the Philippians again, or does he *personally believe* this?
v19 seems to reflect certainty of deliverance (salvation) in God's law court -- ultimate, eschatological salvation/vindication, not a mere earthly deliverance from the imperial law court. (cf. Job 13:16)
v20 seems to suggest the real possibility of both life or death -- his certainty is not life OR death, but Christ's exaltation
v22 expresses the conditional "if"
vv25-26 are what make this difficult. Paul seems to be convinced that it is "more necessary" to remain and continue in the flesh. At face value, it sounds like he is certain that he will continue. But is this simply Paul (infallibly) reporting his personal conviction or is he convinced of this from an infallible divine revelation?
I think O'Brien in the NIGTC suggested that verses 25-26 are conditional: "if" what is described in v22 takes place, and Paul lives on in the flesh, THEN his remaining would be FOR the sake of the edification of the Philippians.
Then v27 seems to suggest the alternative possibilities of Paul either coming or remaining absent.
But verses 25-26 are rather difficult. Is he simply saying that, given the choice, this is what he would *choose* (v22)--to continue with them? Or is he going beyond what he would *choose*, and saying that he infallibly knows this to be the case?
Thanks in advance for sharing your thoughts.
v19 seems to reflect certainty of deliverance (salvation) in God's law court -- ultimate, eschatological salvation/vindication, not a mere earthly deliverance from the imperial law court. (cf. Job 13:16)
v20 seems to suggest the real possibility of both life or death -- his certainty is not life OR death, but Christ's exaltation
v22 expresses the conditional "if"
vv25-26 are what make this difficult. Paul seems to be convinced that it is "more necessary" to remain and continue in the flesh. At face value, it sounds like he is certain that he will continue. But is this simply Paul (infallibly) reporting his personal conviction or is he convinced of this from an infallible divine revelation?
I think O'Brien in the NIGTC suggested that verses 25-26 are conditional: "if" what is described in v22 takes place, and Paul lives on in the flesh, THEN his remaining would be FOR the sake of the edification of the Philippians.
Then v27 seems to suggest the alternative possibilities of Paul either coming or remaining absent.
But verses 25-26 are rather difficult. Is he simply saying that, given the choice, this is what he would *choose* (v22)--to continue with them? Or is he going beyond what he would *choose*, and saying that he infallibly knows this to be the case?
Thanks in advance for sharing your thoughts.