Eastern Orthodoxy on Baptizō and Baptisma

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Phil D.

ὁ βαπτιστὴς
There just hasn't been enough action or controversy lately here on the PB, so it's time for another baptism thread...

Awhile ago I was told by a friend that “you Baptists” are the only ones that insist the word baptizō always comprehends an “immersion.” When I responded that, historically, natively Greek-speaking churches have as well (as actually have some respected non-Baptist Protestants), he expressed uncertainty that even that was the case. So... over time I have in fact come across quite a few such examples, some of which I had catalogued, and then recollected and shared with this friend, and which I thought might also be of interest to some here.

(Note: EO churches are notoriously obstinate and legalistic in many things, and this attitude is very apparent in their doctrine of baptism. So for the record, I do not agree with all of the dire pronouncements and strict sentiments as expressed in some of these citations. But I do find it an interesting historical and philological matter to ponder.)

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Seemingly the most ecclesiastically authoritative declaration on the meaning of baptizō is found in an official statement on baptism issued by an Orthodox synod held in Constantinople, in 1829:

‘Baptizing them,’ the Lord said, not ‘sprinkling on them’ or ‘pouring over them.’ The principle meaning and essence of the verb baptizō is established—and it signifies nothing else—hence, those who are thrust into the water are baptized; that is, in more common speech, those who are dipped, being entirely covered in the water. ...
† Agathangelos [d. 1832], by the mercy of God Archbishop of Constantinople–New Rome and Ecumenical Patriarch, so declares;
† The Patriarch of Jerusalem, Athanasius [V; d. 1844], so declares.
Βαπτίζοντας αυτούς είπεν ο Κύριος ουχί επριραντίζοντες η επιχέοντες. Η γάρ κυρίως σημασία καιn έννοια του ρήματος Βαπτίζω ουδέν άλλον σημαίνουσα εστίν, ειμή εμβάλλειν τοίς ύδασι το βαπτιζόμενον και κοινότερον ειπείν, βουτών αυτό καλύπτειν ολόκληρον εν τοις ύδασι. …
† Αγαθάγγελος ελέω θεού Αρχιεπίσκοπος Κωνσταντινουπόλεως Νέας Ρώμης Οικουμενικός Πατριάρχης αποφαίνεται. † Ο Πατριάρχης Ιεροσολύμων Αθανάσιος αποφαίνεται.
[Σχετικά με την Τελετή του Μυστηρίου του Βαπτίσματος {Concerning the Rite of the Sacrament of Baptism]} Ioanne Baptista Martin, R. P. Ludovico Petit, eds., Sacrorum Conciliorum nova et Amplissima Collectio cuius Johannes Dominicus Mansi, (Parisiis: Expensis Huberti Welter, Bibliopolae, 1909), 40:142.]​

Constantine Oikonomos (1780–1857), a prominent Greek Orthodox theologian, gave this brief synopsis of the philological development and traits of baptizō.

Here we note the following: 1) The word baptizō comes from baptō (as does búptō, and the now more common bouttō, buptō, and bupteō), and it is also related to bathos, buthos and buthizō; hence, it first and foremost indicates a sinking; plunging into water (or any liquid); dipping entirely into water; going underwater.
Πρὸς ταῦτα σημειοῦμεν τὰ ἑξής. 1) Τὸ βαπτίζω ἐκ τοῦ βάπτω (καὶ αἰολεκ. βύπτω, ἐξ οὖ καὶ τὸ τῆς συνηθείας βουττῶ, ἐκ τοῦ βυπτῶ, βυπτέω) συγγενὲς ἐστι τοῦ βάθος, βύθος, βυθίζω, καὶ πρώτην καὶ κυρίαν ἔχει σημασίαν τοῦ βυθίζειν, καταδύειν εἰς ὕδωρ (καὶ ἁπλῶς εἰς ὑγρὸν), ὅλοντι ἐμβάπτειν εἰς ὕδωρ, ὑποβρύχιον ποιεῖν.
[Κωνσταντίνος Οικονόμος, Τα σωζόμενα Εκκλησιαστικά συγγράμματα Κωνσταντίνου Πρεσβυτέρου και Οικονόμου του εξ Οικονόμων {The Extant Ecclesiastical Writings of Constantine the Elder, Overseer of the Stewards}, (Αθήνησι: Σοφοκλέους Κ. του εξ Οικονόμων,1862), 1:402.]​

Oikonomos also gave a number of reasons why he deemed it subversive to claim that pouring conveys the concept of a burial (per Rom. 6:4) just as well as immersion does, one of which was:

Because doing so deceptively denies the intrinsic meaning of baptizō. It is one thing to baptize, and quite another to pour out, viz. to plunge beneath the water vs. moistening with water while standing on dry ground.
Διότι καταψεύδεται καὶ αὐτῆς τῆς κυρίας σημασίας τοῦ βαπτίζω. ʹΆλλο τὸ βαπτίζειν, καὶ ἄλλο τὸ ἐπιχέειν, ώς καὶ τὸ καταδύειν ύποβρύχιον εἰς τὸ ὔδωρ διάφορον τοῦ ὔδατι ἐπιβρεχειν τὸν ἐπ' ἐδάφους ἑστῶτα. [Ibid, 1:482 fn.]​

Not too surprisingly, Orthodox credo also maintains that the modal trait of immersion necessarily remains an intrinsic part of the Christianized noun baptisma. This point was intensely argued by the leading Orthodox theologian of the 18th century, Eustratios Argentis (1687–1757).

First of all, the very word and name baptism must be comprehended, since words come about as a means by which the hearer may discern things through reason. It is known by all that the word baptism carries the same meaning as the now more common boutēma, particularly as the latter pertains to dyeing, as in the action performed by the dyer. Baptizō is likewise taken from baptō. Even in Latin baptō is termed tingere, meaning to color, and the Latins themselves render baptizō as immergere, therein expressing submersion and complete inundation. Accordingly, baptō and baptizō each convey plunging something into a liquid, whereby it is buried in it. Consequently, the practice of the West does not correspond with the term baptism. They speak lies concerning the import of baptizō, and in so doing falsify the name baptism. Therefore, they are justly said to be unbaptized, upon the authority of the name baptism.
Πρώτον μέν πρέπει νά στοχασθώμεν τήν λέξιν, καί τό όνομα τού βαπτίσματος, αί γάρ λέξεις διά τούτο έπενοήθησαν, ίνα ό άκοίων διακρίνη διά τού λόγού τά πράγματα. γνωςόν δέ τοίς πάσιν έςίν, ότι ή λέξις άυτη βάπτισμα, δηλοί τό ίδιωτικώς λεγόμενον βούτημα, καί μάλιςα τήν πράξιν τού βαφέως, όταν βάπτη κανένα. άπό γάρ τού βάπτω παράγεται καί τό βαπτίζο. καί τό μέν βαπτειν Λατινισtί τίνγερε λέγεται, ό σημαίνει τό χρωματίζειν, τό δέ βαπτίζειν οί Λατίνοι ίμμέργερε λέγουσι, δηλοί δέ άυτοίς τό καταβαπτίζειν, καί έναποκλύζειν. έκάτερον δέ, τό, τε βαπτειν, καί τό βαπτίζειν διά καταδύσεως είς τό ύγρόν γίνεται, καί οίονεί διά τής έν τώ ύγρώ ταφής τού πράγματος. ηδέ τών δυτικών πράξις κατ' ούδένα τρόπον δυναται τό όνομα τέ βαπτίσματος, όθεν καί ψεύδονται λέγοντες βαπτίζειν, καί ψευδώνυμον άρα έςί τό κατ' άυτούς βάπτισμα. όθεν δικαίως λέγονταί άβάπτιςοι ώς πρός τήν δυναμιν τής όνομασίας τού βαπτίσματος.
['Ευστράτιος Αργέντης, Ἐγχειριδιον περι βαπτισματος· Καλουμενον Χειραγωγια Πλανωμενων {A Handbook on Baptism; A Summons to False Guides and the Wayward}, (Κωνσταντινουπόλει: Η Βρετανική βιβλιοθήκη, 1756), 7f.]​
The standard index of Orthodox Canon Law was gathered by the Greek scholar Nicodemus the Hagiorite (1749–1809). Nicodemus also added an extensive commentary to this collection, which subsequently acquired the moniker, The Pedalion (The Rudder). The Patriarch of Constantinople, Neophytos VII (d. c.1803), deemed the work to be authoritative and ordered its publication, and it remains in widespread use today. In addition to how the usual Western practice relates to the term baptism, Nicodemus was most obstinate about the implication of its perceived failure to portray a death, burial and resurrection.

Their ‘baptism’ belies the very name, for it is not really a baptism at all, but only a mere sprinkling. ...The Latin’s ‘rantism’ is absent an immersion and emersion, and as such is completely bereft of a type of the three-day death, burial, and resurrection of the Lord. This being the case, we must confess that it is void of all grace, and of sanctification, and of forgiveness of sins. Should the Latins insist that their sprinkling, when accompanied by an invocation of the Holy Trinity, does bestow sanctification and grace, let them learn that baptism is not consummated by invoking the Trinity alone. Rather, it is also necessary to show forth a type of the death, and burial, and resurrection of the Lord. For a simple belief in the Trinity is not enough to save the one being baptized, but a belief in the death of the Messiah is also requisite, and it is by means of both that a person is brought within reach of salvation and bliss.
Tὸ βάπτισμα αὐτῶν ψεύδεται τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ. Kαὶ οὐχ ὅλως ἐστὶ βάπτισμα, ἀλλὰ ράντισμα μόνον ψιλόν. ...Tὸ λατινικὸν ράντισμα, τῶν καταδύσεων καὶ ἀναδύσεων ὂν ἔρημον, ἀκολούθως ἔρημον καὶ τοῦ τύπου τοῦ τριημερονυκτίου θανάτου καὶ τῆς ταφῆς καὶ Ἀναστάσεως τοῦ Kυρίου ὑπάρχει. Ἐκ δὲ τούτων, δῆλόν ἐστι καὶ ὁμολογούμενον, ὅτι καὶ ἔρημον πάσης χάριτός ἐστι καὶ ἁγιασμοῦ καὶ ἀφέσεως ἁμαρτιῶν. Eἰ δὲ οἱ Λατῖνοι ἀνθίστανται, ὅτι τὸ ἑαυτῶν ράντισμα διὰ τῶν ἐπικλήσεων τῆς ἁγίας Tριάδος παρεκτικόν ἐστιν ἁγιασμοῦ καὶ χάριτος, ἂς μάθωσιν, ὅτι δὲν τελειοῦται τὸ βάπτισμα διὰ μόνον τῶν τῆς Tριάδος ἐπικλήσεων, ἀλλὰ δεῖται ἀναγκαίως καὶ τοῦ τύπου τοῦ θανάτου καὶ τῆς ταφῆς καὶ ἀναστάσεως τοῦ Kυρίου. Ἐπειδὴ οὔτε μόνη ἡ εἰς τὴν Tριάδα πίστις σῴζει τὸν βαπτιζόμενον, ἀλλὰ σὺν αὐτῇ ἀναγκαία ὑπάρχει καὶ ἡ εἰς τὸν θάνατον τοῦ Mεσσίου πίστις καὶ οὕτω δι᾽ ἀμφοτέρων ἐντὸς τῆς σωτηρίας καὶ μακαριότητος γίνεται οὗτος.
[Nικοδήμου Ἁγιορείτου, Πηδαλιον της νοητης νηος, της μιας, αγιας, καθοδικης, και ἀποστολικης των Ὀρθοδοξων Ἐκκλησιας {The Rudder of the Metaphorical Ship of the One Holy, Catholic, and Apostolic Orthodox Church}, (Αθήναις: Κωνσταντίνου Γκαρπολά, 1841), 33.]​
More recently, Dr. Georgio Metallinos (1940–2019), an Orthodox priest and Professor of Theology and Byzantine History at the University of Athens, dogmatically wrote:

With particular regard to the Sacrament of Baptism, in accordance with Eph. 4:5 and the [Nicene] Creed, there exists one and only one baptism, the Baptism of the One Church—namely, the Orthodox Church. Ours’ is literally a baptism, being performed by three immersions and emersions, because the term baptism means exactly that, and nothing else.
Ειδικότερα, ως προς το Μυστήριο του Βαπτίσματος, κατά το Εφεσ. 4, 5 και το ιερό Σύμβολο, ένα και μόνο βάπτισμα υπάρχει, το Βάπτισμα της Μιας Εκκλησίας, ήτοι της Ορθοδόξου. Εκείνο δε είναι κυριολεκτικώς “βάπτισμα” που τελείται δια τριών καταδύσεων και αναδύσεων, καθ’ όσον ο όρος “βάπτισμα”, τούτο και μόνον μπορεί να σημαίνει.
[Ρ. Γεωργιου Δ. Μεταλληνου, Ομολογω Εν Βαπτισμα {I Confess One Baptism}, (Αθήνα: Εκδόσεις ΤΗΝΟΣ, 1996), 37.]​
What is probably the most widely used catechetical work throughout modern Greek Orthodoxy, written by a popular priest and theologian named Athanasios Frangopoulos (1907–77), quite frankly states:

At this point we should point out that the Latins and Protestants don’t baptize infants; rather, they sprinkle them with water, and this they call baptism. Baptism, however, does not mean to sprinkle. It means to put into water. He who is baptized must be placed completely into the water of the font, from head to toe. This triple immersion is the most important part of the Sacrament of Baptism. Here, then, we have a great difference with the Papists and the Protestants. And this difference consists of an innovation that separates us, because our Lord commanded that we be baptized and not sprinkled. During Holy Baptism a death and resurrection take place - a birth, or rather, a rebirth. First a death takes place, and that’s why those who are to be baptized must be totally immersed in the water of the font, because this immersion symbolizes death. What death? The death of the old sinful man.
Εδώ πρέπει να πούμε πως οι Λατίνοι και οι προτεστάντες δεν βαπτίζουν τα παιδιά, αλλά τα ραντίζουν με νερό και αυτό το λένε βάπτισμα. Βάπτισμα όμως δεν θα πει ράντισμα. Θα πει βούτηγμα μέσα στο νερό, ώστε ο βαπτιζόμενος να χωθεί όλος μέσα στο νερό της κολυμβήθρας, από το κεφάλι μέχρι τα πόδια. Αυτή η τριττή κατάδυση, όπως επίσημα λέγεται, είναι το σπουδαιότερο μέρος του μυστηρίου του βαπτίσματος. Εδώ λοιπόν έχουμε διαφορά μεγάλη με τους παπικούς και προτεστάντες. Και η διαφορά μας αυτή αποτελεί καινοτομία που μας χωρίζει, διότι ο Κύριος είπε να βαπτιζόμαστε και όχι να ραντιζόμαστε. Στο άγιο Βάπτισμα λαμβάνει χώρα ένας θάνατος και μία ανάσταση, μία γέννηση, αναγέννηση. Θάνατος πρώτα, γι’ αυτό και πρέπει να βουτιέται όλος ο βαπτιζόμενος στο νερό της κολυμβήθρας, διότι το βούτηγμα αυτό συμβολίζει το θάνατο. Ποιο θάνατο; Το θάνατο του παλαιού ανθρώπου της αμαρτίας.
[Αθανάσιος Φραγκόπουλος, Η Ορθόδοξη Χριστιανική Πίστη μας {Our Orthodox Christian Faith}, (Αθήναι: Αδελφότης Θεολόγων “Ο Σωτηρ”, 2006), 128.]​

The one Orthodox community that does indiscriminately use pouring is the Russian Orthodox Church. The introduction of pouring in the 16th Century in some other northern European churches also made its way into the neighboring Ukrainian region during the same period. At first there was stiff resistance to this “innovation” by the Muscovite patriarchy. But such practice became normalized in many areas after the reforming bishop Theophan (or, Feofan) Prokopovich (1681–1737), a native Kievite, staunchly defended it,* and succeeded in his efforts to have the Russian patriarchy abolished in the early 18th Century.

Needless to say, this modal evolution was strongly opposed by the southern Orthodox churches. A good example of this is seen in the writings of the Greek Orthodox scholar Theoklitos Pharmakidis (1784–1860), a professor of theology and philosophy at the University of Athens, who also authored a multi-volume textbook on the Greek language.** Pharmakidis additionally served as General Secretary of the Greek Orthodox Church, during which tenure he responded to some supporters of Theophan’s arguments and practice, and again addressed the meaning of baptizō and baptisma:

But we ask the most venerable Russian divines, wherein did you find these two ways of baptizing? In the New Testament? The baptizō in the command of our Lord Jesus Christ to perform baptism, “Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,” (Matt. 28:19), indicates nothing other than what this Greek verb properly means. This is made evident from the baptism of our Lord, who, when he was baptized, went up out of the water (Matt. 3:16). And he that comes up out of the water must of course first go down into the water, whereupon all of him is baptized in it. We are thereby taught a single manner of baptizing from the New Testament, namely, immersion; and, of course, immersion in water results in nothing other than a complete covering with or in the water.
But to baptize also means to launder, wash, wash away—so what then? While it may be capable of possessing these additional meanings, in the sacrament of baptism it has only one meaning: a complete covering in water—that is, an immersion. Moreover, the Russians were taught Christianity by us, and from their teachers they learned one and only one way of baptizing, namely, the threefold immersion and emersion of the entire person being baptized in the water. And this is baptism according to the principle and Scriptural meaning of the word. And do not the Russian theologians know how great a difference there is, and how much strife there is between us and those who accept sprinkling or pouring instead of baptism? Then again, washing is quite different than either sprinkling or pouring, so why is the former term used [by them] instead of the latter?

Άλλ’ έρωτώμεν τούς εύσεβεστάτους Ρώσσους θεολόγους, Πού εύρηκαν τόν διττόν τούτον τρόπον τού βαπτίζειν; Εν τή καινή Διαθήκης; ἁλλ’ έν αυτή τὸ ΒΑΠΤΙΖΩ εν τη περί του βαπτίςματος διαταγή τοῦ Κυρίον ήμών Ιησοῦ Χριστού «πορευθέντες μαθητεύσατε πάντα τὰ ἔθνη, βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ πατρὸς, καί τοῦ υίού, καί τοῦ ἁγίου πνεύματος» Ματθ. ΚΗ, 19. άλλο δέν σημαίνει είμή ό, τι κυρίως σημαίνει τό έλληνικόν αύτό ρήμα, καί τούτο δήλον καί έκ τού βαπτίσματος αύτον τού Κυρίον ήμών, όστις βαπτισθείς άνεβη εύθύς άπό τού ϋδατος. Ματθ. Γ’, 16. άλλ’ όστις άναβαίνει άπό τού ϋδατος, καταβαίνει πρότερον έν τώ ϋδατι, ό έςι βαπτίζεται όλος έν αύτώ. ’Ενα λοιπόν τρόπον τού βαπτίζειν μανθάνομεν έκ τής καινής διαθήκης, τόν διά τής καταδύσεως, καί κατάδυσις άλλο δέν είναι είμή όλική δί ϋδατος ή έν τώ ϋδατι κάλυφις.
Άλλά τό Βαπτίζω σημαίνει καί τό Πλύνω, Λούω, Άπολούω. καί τί έκ τούτου; δύναται νά έχη καί άλλας άκόμη σημασίας, καί όμως είς τό μυστήριον τού βαπτίσματος μίαν καί μόνην σημασίαν νά έχη, τήν όλικήν έν τώ ύδατι κάλυψιν ήτοι τήν κατάδυσιν. Έπειτα οί Ρώσσοι εδιδάχθησαν παρ’ ήμών τόν χριστιανισμόν, καί παρά τών διδασκάλων ΈΝΑ ΚΑΊ ΜΌΝΟΝ τρόπον τού βαπτίζειν έμαθον, τόν διά τής τριττής καταδύσεως καί άναδύσεως τού βαπτιζομένου ΌΛΟΥ έν τώ ύδατι, καί τούτο είναι βάπτισμα κατά τήν κυριωτάτην καί γραφικήν έννοιαν τού όνόματος. Καί δέν ήξεύρoυσιν οί Ρώσσοι θεολόγοι, πόση διαφορά ύπάρχει, καί πόση έρις γίνεται μεταξύ ήμών καί τών δεχομένων τόν ῥαντισμόν ή τήν έπίχυσιν άντί βαπτίσματος; καί διαφέρει τάχα πολύ τό ablutio τού adspersio ή superfusio, καί διά τούτο μεταχειρίζονται τό πρώτον καί όχι τό δεύτερον όνομα;
[Θεοκλήτου Φαρμακίδου, Ο Ψευδώνυμος Γερμανός {To Pseudonymous Germanos}, (Αθηναι: Τυπογραφιας Α. Αγγεδιδου, 1838), 36.]​
*Феофан Прокопович, Истинное оправдание правоверных христиан крещением поливательным во Христа крещаемых {The true Justification of Orthodox Christians that are Baptized into Christ with Pouring}, (Санкт-Петербург: Синодальная типография, 1724).​
*Theophanis Procopowicz, Synodicus Libellus de Duplici Modo Baptizandi: qui in Ecclesia Orthodoxa Graeco-Rossica obtinet, ex Lingva Rossica nunc primo Latine redditus et editus; {Synodical Document on the Two Modes of Baptizing which prevail in the Greek-Russian Orthodox Church, now first rendered and Published in Latin from the Russian Language}, (Mosqv.: Impensis Christiani Rudigeri, 1779).​
**Θεοκλητου Φαρμακιδου, Στοιχεία της Ελληνικής Γλώσσης εις χρήσιν των Σχολείων της Ελλάδος {Elements of the Greek Language for Use in the Schools of Greece}, (Αθήναις: Αγγέλου Αγγελίδου, 1815–18), 4 vols.​
 
One of the Elders of my church was raised Greek Orthodox. When he became Reformed he was RPCNA for a little while and then after understanding the covenant arguments for believer's baptism, became Reformed Baptist.

He likes to talk about how the Greeks know their own language, and when they are asked "how do you perform baptism", they answer "we baptize by baptizing, obviously". "Baptizing", of course, meaning immersing.
 
One of the Elders of my church was raised Greek Orthodox. When he became Reformed he was RPCNA for a little while and then after understanding the covenant arguments for believer's baptism, became Reformed Baptist.

He likes to talk about how the Greeks know their own language, and when they are asked "how do you perform baptism", they answer "we baptize by baptizing, obviously". "Baptizing", of course, meaning immersing.
We must be cautious to avoid appealing to an authority fallaciously. Just because someone speaks Greek natively does not necessarily mean they are right in everything concerning the New Testament. It doesn't mean they are wrong, either, just not necessarily correct. Otherwise, we would have to say the Pharisees and Scribes interpreted the Old Testament correctly simply because they "knew their own language."

Geerhardus Vos has an interesting discussion that I have posted on Puritan Board before, and I think it is worth reposting here:

Βάπτω (baptō) means “to dip,” “immerse,” for to baptize and to immerse are related to each other (cf. the English “to dive,” “to dip”). In John 13:26 it is used for the dipping of the morsel by Jesus that he gave to Judas. See also Ruth 2:14 [Septuagint] for dipping the morsel in vinegar by Ruth; Luke 16:24 for dipping Lazarus’ finger in water. In all these passages, the word used is βάπτω, so that positively no doubt need exist about the original meaning. When a Baptist says that baptō means “immerse,” then one should grant him that without reservation.​
A strengthened form of baptō is baptizō (βαπτίζω), and this is the usual word in use for “baptize.” This, too, is originally “immerse.” Actually, baptizein means “immerse repeatedly”; it is an iterative form. Hence it is used instead of baptō in 2 Kings 5:14 [Septuagint], which recounts how Naaman dipped himself seven times in the Jordan. But this iterative meaning is not always maintained, so that often enough baptizein is equal in meaning to baptein. Now, however, this baptizein appears at the same time to have been the usual Greek translation for the Levitical washings and purifications, which again may be connected with the fact that this took place generally by bathing—that is, by immersing the body in water. One may compare, for example, Matthew 15:2, “For they do not wash their hands when they eat” (οὐ γὰρ νίπτονται τὰς χεῖρας), with Mark 7:4, “unless they first wash” (ἐὰν μὴ βαπτίσωνται).​
With this, the concept of baptizō is placed directly under the viewpoint of “washing,” a fact of the highest importance. That this “washing” was in most instances a washing by immersion appears as something accidental that could also be something else, and that, if it had been something else, nothing of substance would have changed. The Levitical purifications were washings of the whole body, also where a sprinkling accompanied them (Num 19:19; see also v. 18; Lev 11:24–28 and following; 17:15; 14:2–8; 15:16–18, 19–24, 25–29, 2–15). That in all these purifications the whole body had to be washed and not just a part had to do with the ceremonial and burdensome character of the Old Testament dispensation. If an easy sprinkling had been sufficient, then perhaps it would have quickly become an outward form. The bathing of the whole body did not easily become a meaningless custom. Then one should also not forget that for the Levitical purification its symbolic character came to the fore. It was therefore in all respects fitting that in the case of uncleanness the whole body was subject to a washing. By that was certainly pictured how the entire person is polluted by sin and how complete renewal is necessary. However, from that it may not be inferred that at baptism as a sacrament, too, complete immersion of the body is necessary. With baptism, not the sign but the seal is surely in the foreground. The New Testament sacraments are not in the first place symbols; they are above all seals of the covenant. Thus it is in no way necessary that the entire symbolism of the purifications of the Old Testament be transferred to the baptism of the New Testament.​
The error the Baptists make when they insist that baptizein is immersion and nothing else lies in overlooking the fact just mentioned. Words have their meaning by their use, not by their etymology. One can safely grant not only that originally baptizō means to immerse; indeed, one can even go so far as to say that initially immersion was the customary mode of baptism, without playing into the hands of the Baptists. The point at issue between them and us surely lies in this: whether immersion constitutes the heart and essence of the symbolism of baptism, so that abandoning it would be the same as abandoning baptism itself. When one asks a Baptist, “Why did Christ institute the sacrament of incorporation into the Christian church in this way?” then his answer is: “Because it had to be portrayed by descending into and emerging from the water.” That thereby washing takes place at the same time, since one cannot immerse someone without the water at the same time washing his body is, according to him, something incidental. Baptism would be baptism, and its essence preserved, if one could immerse someone in something else that does not have a cleansing quality. If one poses the same question to us, then we answer: The sacrament was instituted by Christ in this way because He intended to have washing and purification portrayed. The fact that this ordinarily took place in a land like Palestine and according to the Jewish law by immersion or bathing was something incidental and subordinate. If a washing takes place without immersion, then baptism retains its essence.​
Thus the issue between us and Baptists is not at all whether baptizein means to immerse or to sprinkle. One can grant, and probably will have to grant, that nowhere in the New Testament has it completely lost its original meaning of “immersing” or “dipping.” The issue is simply whether immersion was the main point or something incidental. And then we say the latter. It was immersion with the purpose of washing, and in order to portray purification. We rely on this when we claim that baptism by sprinkling is just as much the ordinance of Christ as baptism by immersion. From their side, Baptists believe that the Reformation has taken half measures, that Luther and Calvin did not fully clean out the Roman Catholic leaven, and that on them the duty rests to restore original Christianity in its purity.​
One should preferably not combat Baptists with weak historical arguments from the New Testament. One can appeal to Mark 7:4: βαπτισμοὺς ποτηρίων καὶ ξεστῶν καὶ χαλκίων καὶ κλινῶν, “washing of cups and pots and copper vessels and couches.” It is said that cups and pots and copper vessels could be immersed, but not couches. It is a question, however, whether these words (kai klinōn) belong in the text. Westcott and Hort omit them. The Revised Version does also. One can also point to Acts 2:41–42. There were 3,000 people added to the church, who for the most part were also certainly baptized. Was that possible in so short a time if baptism took place by immersion? It is not impossible. An equally large number of converts have been baptized in a relatively short period of time by immersion. The appeal to Acts 10:47 is also not strong, since we evidently have to do there with a figurative expression. Peter intends to say: the Holy Spirit has already come upon them; can anyone still forbid water, by which they are signified and sealed? From Acts 16:33 it has generally been inferred that the jailer and his family were not baptized by immersion but simply by sprinkling. But Baptists say that the jail, like most of the large buildings in the Middle East, had a fountain and a cistern. First Corinthians 10:1–2 states that all the fathers were under the cloud and passed through the sea and were baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea. The fact that they went through the water, and that certainly with dry feet, can, it is said, be called already being baptized. They were simply sprinkled with the spattering drops. But there is no mention of sprinkling in the account of these events. The apostle apparently conceived of them such that the sea and the cloud surrounded the people, and so became an element in which they were located. The sea was on both sides, the cloud was over the Israelites; that was their baptism.​
Appeal is also made to passages that speak of a baptizing with the Holy Spirit: Matthew 3:1 (ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳ καὶ πυρί); Mark 1:8 (ἐγὼ ἐβάπτισα ὑμᾶς ὕδατι, αὐτὸς δὲ βαπτίσει ὑμᾶς ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳ); John 1:33 (οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ βαπτίζων ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳ); Acts 1:5; 11:16 (ὑμεῖς δὲ βαπτισθήσεσθε ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳ); 1 Cor 12:13 (καὶ γὰρ ἐν ἑνὶ πνεύματι ἡμεῖς πάντες εἰς ἓν σῶμα ἐβαπτίσθημεν). The question is how this “in the Holy Spirit,” as it literally stands in all these passages, is meant. Is the Holy Spirit the element in which one is baptized, in which God, as it were, immerses, or is it to be understood as a being baptized with the Holy Spirit? In the latter case, ἐν, equivalent to בְּ in Hebrew, would be an instrumental preposition. In Mark 1:8 it is without doubt “by means of water … by means of the Holy Spirit.” But from this it does not yet follow that sprinkling is thought of, for one can also call baptism through immersion a baptism by means of water. In 1 Corinthians 12:13, the translation “by means of one Spirit” appears to us the most natural, but sprinkling is not proven by it. By all of these things one can only deprive Baptists of proofs, not obtain proofs for his own views. See the commentaries on these passages.​
—Geerhardus Vos, Ecclesiology, ed. Kim Batteau and Allan Janssen, trans. Richard B. Gaffin, vol. 5, Reformed Dogmatics (Bellingham, WA: Lexham Press, 2016), 121-124.​
 
The idea that the word "baptize" ordinarily means "to immerse" is not a distinctively baptist idea, and it should be carefully distinguished from the matter of credobaptism, which is a distinctively baptist teaching. As I understand it, baptism was ordinarily administered in England by immersion up until the time of the Reformation, and even the Roman Catholic Church, which is ordinarily associated with sprinkling, states in its catechism that "to baptize" means "to immerse":
"This sacrament is called Baptism, after the central rite by which it is carried out: to baptize (Greek baptizein) means to "plunge" or "immerse" (#1214)
"Baptism is performed in the most expressive way by triple immersion in the baptismal water." (#1239)
There are also plenty of reformers who taught that "baptize" means "plunge" or "immerse."
That said, I still believe sprinkling is valid, and preferable where conditions do not allow for immersion.
 
We must be cautious to avoid appealing to an authority fallaciously. Just because someone speaks Greek natively does not necessarily mean they are right in everything concerning the New Testament. It doesn't mean they are wrong, either, just not necessarily correct.

Agreed. On the other hand, I don't think such should be too easily discounted or dismissed. One of the first works on biblical hermeneutics I read following my spiritual exile years ago was a truly massive treatise written by an evangelical Anglican. One principle stated was,

“Ascertain the usus loquendi, or notion affixed to a word by the persons in general, by whom the language either is now or formerly was spoken, and especially in the particular connection in which such notion is affixed.”

[Vos] The error the Baptists make when they insist that baptizein is immersion and nothing else lies in overlooking the fact just mentioned.

A couple of comments. While this may be true of Restorationist, Landmark, Hard Shell, and some not-really-thinking-it-through Baptists, I and others I know don't quite see it that way (despite EO exclusivist rhetoric to that same effect...). Rather, I would concur with Hendrikus Berkhof:

"In the New Testament baptizesthai thus denotes ‘to wash oneself’ (middle) or ‘to be washed’ (passive). Accordingly, the nouns baptisma and baptismos are to be translated as ‘cleansing’ or ‘washing’ (cf. Mark 7:4; Heb. 6:2; 9:10), with the original meaning of ‘immersion’ always being presupposed."

Similarly, the acclaimed Greek exegete Heinrich Meyer: "In this case [Mark 7:4] ean me baptisōntai is not to be understood of washing the hands, but of [complete] immersion, which the word in classic Greek and in the New Testament everywhere denotes."

I do disagree with certain other points that Vos makes as well, but I'll not go into that here. Rather, overall I find his remarks - and as I've noticed, those of quite a few other theologians of Continental Reformed heritage - to be remarkably cogent and refreshingly candid, compared to what many non-immersionists historically have said (especially British and American), and that too many continue to say.
 
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Speaking of Dutchmen that talk about immersion, this is what Franciscus Gomarus has to say on the matter:
"From βάπτω [to dip] is the frequentative βαπτίζω [to dip, baptize], which is properly translated by Tertullian as mergitare [to immerse] (de corona ch. 3); and, by metonymy on the part of the one that performs it, as tingere [to plunge] or diluere [to bathe] (de bapt. ch. 4). It is also used in this sense in the Holy Scriptures, Mk. 7:4. In a similar way, the Hebrew tabhal (to immerse, plunge) (which the LXX translates as βάπτω, Lev. 4:6, and βαπτίζω, 2 Kng. 5:14), and rachats, ‘to wash,’ are interchanged in the same sense, 2 Kng. 5:13. And thus, Sirach explains βαπτιζόμενον ἀπὸ νεκροῦ [baptized from the dead] as regarding λύτρῳ, washing. Sirach. 34, 36. From this word, βαπτισμὸς [washing, immersion], Mk. 7:4, 8, and βάπτισμα [baptism], Heb. 6:2, are derived. They denote the act of baptizing; that is, either immersion alone, or the consequent intinction and washing off, Mk. 5:4, 8. In this sense, it is called καθαρισμὸς, cleansing, Jn. 3:25. Hence, Isidore interprets baptism in Greek as dipping in Latin. Orig. bk. 6.19. For this reason, it is also called dipping by Tertullian, de poenit. ch. 5-6, and commonly, fluvial baptism, and water baptism, Jn. 1:26. And it is a sacrament of the New Testament, instituted by God, and promulgated through John the Baptist, and Jesus Christ, by which, through a minister of the gospel, all who are covenanted with God, through Christ, must be bathed in water, in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, in order to signify and seal his reception into the new covenant of grace, exhibited through Jesus Christ, and the confirmation of faith and repentance."
 
Speaking of Dutchmen that talk about immersion, this is what Franciscus Gomarus has to say on the matter:
"From βάπτω [to dip] is the frequentative βαπτίζω [to dip, baptize], which is properly translated by Tertullian as mergitare [to immerse] (de corona ch. 3); and, by metonymy on the part of the one that performs it, as tingere [to plunge] or diluere [to bathe] (de bapt. ch. 4). It is also used in this sense in the Holy Scriptures, Mk. 7:4. In a similar way, the Hebrew tabhal (to immerse, plunge) (which the LXX translates as βάπτω, Lev. 4:6, and βαπτίζω, 2 Kng. 5:14), and rachats, ‘to wash,’ are interchanged in the same sense, 2 Kng. 5:13. And thus, Sirach explains βαπτιζόμενον ἀπὸ νεκροῦ [baptized from the dead] as regarding λύτρῳ, washing. Sirach. 34, 36. From this word, βαπτισμὸς [washing, immersion], Mk. 7:4, 8, and βάπτισμα [baptism], Heb. 6:2, are derived. They denote the act of baptizing; that is, either immersion alone, or the consequent intinction and washing off, Mk. 5:4, 8. In this sense, it is called καθαρισμὸς, cleansing, Jn. 3:25. Hence, Isidore interprets baptism in Greek as dipping in Latin. Orig. bk. 6.19. For this reason, it is also called dipping by Tertullian, de poenit. ch. 5-6, and commonly, fluvial baptism, and water baptism, Jn. 1:26. And it is a sacrament of the New Testament, instituted by God, and promulgated through John the Baptist, and Jesus Christ, by which, through a minister of the gospel, all who are covenanted with God, through Christ, must be bathed in water, in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, in order to signify and seal his reception into the new covenant of grace, exhibited through Jesus Christ, and the confirmation of faith and repentance."

That is actually very representative of what I've found most Reformed Dutch, Swiss, French and German theologians to say, all the way from the 16th through 19th centuries. So too Catholics, Lutherans, and, now that I think of it, even most Anglicans. So, (with no offense intended, truly) the broader disconnect from seeing immersion as the native meaning and biblical norm for baptism, at least in my readings, is somewhat of a Presbyterian, Congregationalist and American Reformed phenomenon. I've also found I have to agree with Philip Schaff as to the likely explanation for this.

"The Protestant Baptists can appeal to the usual meaning of the Greek word and the testimony of antiquity for immersion. ...The baptism of Christ in the Jordan and the illustrations of baptism used in the New Testament (Rom. 6:3, 4; Col. 2:12; 1 Cor. 10:2; 1 Pet. 3:21) are all in favor of immersion rather than of sprinkling, as is freely admitted by the best exegetes, Catholic and Protestant, English and German. Nothing can be gained by unnatural exegesis. The persistency and aggressiveness of the Baptists have driven Paedobaptists to the opposite extreme."

Historically, the bolded part would seem particularly true for the aforementioned groups, given their especially tumultuous interactions with various Anabaptist and Baptist groups.

I would welcome, and will carefully consider any push-back folks may have on this.
 
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Is it unnatural exegesis to conclude from Acts 2:33 that the baptism of the Holy Spirit Jesus promised to the apostles in Acts 1:5 was performed by pouring?

I would say yes and no... This is a metaphorical application of the term baptize. The Holy Spirit is obviously not a physical entity that can literally be poured out. Metaphors, like parables, almost always have one primary point of comparison. The near unanimous historical comprehension (at least prior to the great baptismal debates beginning in the 18th Century) has been that the intended comparison is the the abundant, overwhelming extent and nature of The Gift. Many commentators even say on Pentecost the believers were immersed in the Holy Spirit. Here is the exegesis of two Greek-speaking churchmen:

Chrysostom: When he [John the Baptist] said, “He shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost,” at once, by the very figure of speech [metaphora lexeōs], declared the abundance of the grace, (for he said not, “He will [merely] give you the Holy Ghost,” but “He will baptize you with the Holy Ghost." (Homilies on Matthew; NPNF1 10.71)

Theophylact: The very term “be baptized," signifies the abundance, and, as it were, the riches of the participation of the Holy Spirit; as also, as perceived by the senses, he who is immersed in water [baptizomenos en hydati] in that manner bathes [brechōn—bathe; drench] the whole body, while he who simply receives water is not drenched all over." (Commentary on Acts, [1:5]; PG 125:512)

Again, this is simply taking the native and primary meaning of baptize and applying it as the natural point of comparison.

Along these lines, I have seen a few modern commentators even say baptism's main symbolism is to show the giving of the Holy Spirit - hence pouring is the best mode. But again, this interpretation is foreign to pre-18th Century exegesis.
 
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Along these lines, I have seen a few modern commentators even say baptism's main symbolism is to show the giving of the Holy Spirit - hence pouring is the best mode. But again, this interpretation is foreign to pre-18th Century exegesis.
Based on the quote you cite from Chrysostom, it is unclear if he would say baptism's main symbolism is the giving of the Holy Spirit. But that is clearly the conclusion that Theolphylact came to, which means that interpretation is not foreign to pre-18th Century exegesis. I do not know how it could be denied that the sign of baptism is associated with the giving of the Holy Spirit. As John the Baptizer said of Jesus, "I indeed baptized you with water, but He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit." Perhaps you are saying the assertion that pouring is the best mode to symbolize the giving of the Holy Spirit is an interpretation foreign to pre-18th Century exegesis?
 
Based on the quote you cite from Chrysostom, it is unclear if he would say baptism's main symbolism is the giving of the Holy Spirit. But that is clearly the conclusion that Theolphylact came to, which means that interpretation is not foreign to pre-18th Century exegesis. I do not know how it could be denied that the sign of baptism is associated with the giving of the Holy Spirit. As John the Baptizer said of Jesus, "I indeed baptized you with water, but He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit." Perhaps you are saying the assertion that pouring is the best mode to symbolize the giving of the Holy Spirit is an interpretation foreign to pre-18th Century exegesis?

No, that is not at all the case. These quotes simply show how those men interpreted the particular, metaphorical use of the term baptize in Acts 1:5. Like anyone, their span of commentary needs to be taken holistically, and when done they have rather a lot to say about the inherent symbolism in the sacrament and performance of physical baptism. And in that particular context, like most patristics, they identify and emphasize the concepts of spiritual cleansing, and a death/burial/resurrection.
 
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Perhaps you are saying the assertion that pouring is the best mode to symbolize the giving of the Holy Spirit is an interpretation foreign to pre-18th Century exegesis?

I should, and will qualify my statement on this by adding, this is the case in my reading of historical sources. If there is something I'm not familiar with, then of course it must be duly considered.
 
True enough, although a relatively minor point in context of the OP...
Sorry - it was a subtle attempt to suggest that the Orthodox church is perhaps not the best place to pull from for such a topic.

Even growing up in a credobaptist congregation, "immerse" (from the Latin) never made sense as the best way to translate baptizō into English. I have always preferred translating it as "placed under" as baptizō in its Biblical uses does not always refer to a context of water or liquid (something "immerse" seems to usually imply). Using "placed under" makes much better sense of passages such as 1 Corinthians 10:2 and Matthew 3:11/Luke 3:16 and Matthew 20:22-23. Is baptism a placing under water or a placing under the covenant symbolized by the washing of water? If the former, why do the Biblical accounts say things like "I baptize you with water" (Matthew 3:11) - why redundantly add "with water" if "baptize" already includes that by definition?
 
Agreed. On the other hand, I don't think such should be too easily discounted or dismissed. One of the first works on biblical hermeneutics I read following my spiritual exile years ago was a truly massive treatise written by an evangelical Anglican. One principle stated was,

“Ascertain the usus loquendi, or notion affixed to a word by the persons in general, by whom the language either is now or formerly was spoken, and especially in the particular connection in which such notion is affixed.”

The problem here is that the Greek EO Church, because it speaks Greek, is not the proper subject of determining how early Chrsitians used Greek words to convey theological ideas.

It's rather akin to arguing that, because we speak English, a debate about the 17th Century use of certain words convey the social, poltical, and theological meanings and a German speaker would trust a modern English reader's meaning simply beacuse the language is native to him.

The EO Church can't seem to get the 2nd Commandment straight so it's sort of a strianed argument to make the case that they've gotten the theological import of the sacrament correct to argue for the theological necessity of the mode of baptism.

The wCF is sort of ambivalent about mode. I think it's historically the case that a Presbyterian is simply not convinced, theologically, that the validity of Baptism is annexed to the mode. He may not make the arguments Vos makes but it is eseentially the same notion.

It's kind of funny to me, because when the baptism of the Spirit is mentioned as to puring, you note that it is a metaphor.

Well, baptism is a sign. People get immersed all the time and it signfies nothing. I think the problem I have is that most Baptists I know spend a ton of time arguing as if the issue is purely "exegetical" because the word conveys the notion of washing and dipping, etc.

Water does not merely signify washing but judgment.

I guess, in the end, I'm not persuaded by a historical argument that fails to make a strong theological case for mode. In one sense, your'e asking us to be incensed by the issue of mode where I might ask you why you so disregard the historical practice of the baptism of infants themslves. Why would I think it important that mode was important based on the past where you ignore the weighteir issue as to the subjects of baptism itself. Of course, what you'll respond with is that you don't think the history of the issue makes the theological or exegetical case no matter how many quotes by "native Greek speakers" I amass.

In other words, I find the quotes interesting but they don't really touch on deeper exegetical and theological reflection upon which our theology of the Covenant and the Sacraments rest.
 
The problem here is that the Greek EO Church, because it speaks Greek, is not the proper subject of determining how early Chrsitians used Greek words to convey theological ideas.

As far as you go here, again I agree. The much bigger issue of course is does the biblical use of certain terminology (as distinct from the supposed consequence of a particular practice) generally accord with the Greek-speaking church's understanding of it, or not. And I realize many paedos and credos have and will continue to disagree as to the correct answer.

Yet, as has already been glimpsed in this thread, I do think it is accurate to note that many (most?) pre-modern Reformed leaders expressed more agreement with the "Baptist" and EO take on what the apostolic mode and perceived symbolism of baptism was, than with what a significant number of their present day Reformed peers are saying (myriad more examples available upon request... ) Of course, exactly what the practical implications of this are is a matter of differing opinions as well.

Ultimately, I'm not expecting this thread will change many minds, but I believe the material is nonetheless interesting and of some merit. If nothing else, its sharing some substantive historical quotes that do exist, whether one likes or agrees with them or not, and which have had some noticeable bearing on church history.

The EO Church can't seem to get the 2nd Commandment straight so it's sort of a strianed argument to make the case that they've gotten the theological import of the sacrament correct to argue for the theological necessity of the mode of baptism.

Again, as I think I've already indicated, I'm not suggesting the EO are decidedly authoritative on anything whatsoever.

I will even say that while throughout history debates between Catholics and Protestants, as well as inter-Protestant debates, have been conducted with staunch and sometimes even bitter defenses and attacks by both parties, the EO quite regularly display a special kind of arrogance and passive/aggressive behavior not really seen elsewhere in such affairs. Just my opinion...

I guess, in the end, I'm not persuaded by a historical argument that fails to make a strong theological case for mode. In one sense, your'e asking us to be incensed by the issue of mode

Seriously, brother? Where, if I may ask, are you getting that take from? (ODoEL: incensed: very angry; enraged)

In other words, I find the quotes interesting but they don't really touch on deeper exegetical and theological reflection upon which our theology of the Covenant and the Sacraments rest.

I have also intended and tried to convey that same sentiment, although apparently not with complete success.

In all honesty, I think you have misread my intentions, although I'm not quite sure what else I can do to clarify. We've locked horns over this issue in years past as well, and so at this point I'm content to realize that we will likely never see eye-to-eye on this particular, secondary topic, and to leave it at that.
 
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Just to chime in as others have pointed out. This looking to the East because they speak Greek is somewhat dangerous. It reminds me of those who argue in Romans 7:13-25 is Paul speaking before conversion. Many that have argued that position use Early Church Fathers or the Greek Church because they speak Greek. I remain unconvinced, in the same way I am dubious of listening to EO on Baptism. But Rich and particularly Taylor waxed far more eloquently than I on this.
 
Just to chime in as others have pointed out. This looking to the East because they speak Greek is somewhat dangerous.

Alright, folks, just to be really, really clear.

I am NOT saying that we should look to the EO to definitively determine the meaning of baptizo or baptisma. Period.
 
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As far as you go here, again I agree. The much bigger issue of course is does the biblical use of certain terminology (as distinct from the supposed consequence of a particular practice) generally accord with the Greek-speaking church's understanding of it, or not. And I realize many paedos and credos have and will continue to disagree as to the correct answer.
My overall point was that the post seems to indicate that the history of the EO Church and native Greek speakers lends more support to a practice.

What I was trying to drive at and didn't communicate well, is that nobody is in real disagreement about the syntactic domain of the term.

As I was working out today, I was thnking of Martin Luther pounding the table at Zwingli and shouting: "This is my body!"

It's not that the words are in dispute. Someone in this thread even said that the Greeks will just say: "Well, of course we baptize them" as if that answers the question.

In fact, baptize seeks to convey an idea that comes over from the Old Testament. Given the range of the meanings that the Greek word is used within the Septuagint, it's the reason that translators don't just translate the verse: "Go ye therefore, and make disciples, immersing them in the Name of the Father..."

It's a theological idea much denser than something as simple as limiting it do the idea that I dipped my bread into some olive oil the other night.

I guess what I'm saying is that it's not merely that I don't trust the thological conclusions of the Greek EO Church on this point. It's that I agree with any person who studies the language and understands the semantic range. From there it's also a matter of whether or not, given what baptism signifies and the Biblical data, that I think the Scriptures themselves prescribe a mode in the use of the term - especially when that term is annexed to wider Biblical usage where immersiaon, puring, and sprinkling are present in "baptisms" in the OT. From that point, I'd take into consideration historical practice. While it would inform how I would practice it if that was the mode for my communion, I'm not convinced that another communion's practice provides any authoratative guidance if I consider this to be left to the light of nature.

Put another way, there are those that have a very strong theological aversion to anything other than a common loaf and a common cup for communion. I'm not persuaded that the mode of the bread (one loaf vs small pieces of bread) is annexed to the command to eat anymore than I think a common cup is annexed to the command to drink. There may be good arguments as to why my Church practices it in a certain way but nobody is unclear as to what Christ's actual words were and a native Greek speakers isn't going to help me decide whether we ought to use a common loaf or not.
 
My overall point was that the post seems to indicate that the history of the EO Church and native Greek speakers lends more support to a practice.

To a degree I still think it does. It is at least a notable fact, and a testament not entirely void of ancillary merit or significance. Ultimately, as I've said all along, it's of course not anything definitive. That's how I tried to frame things from the beginning. Also, as I indicated in the OP, it was in response to a challenge on this exact point by a friend (who happens to be Presbyterian) that I marshaled some relevant sources I'd previously found, and then decided to share here as a matter of possible interest. I also said up-front, and several times since, that I disagree with the tenor and extremity of some of the things said and held by the EO in my citations of them. So I've tried, though apparently not well enough, to make where I am coming from plain, or maybe some of my statements were just skipped over.

I think we need to be honest here. If the historically Greek-speaking churches lent philological support to the non-immersionist position, there can be little doubt those of such persuasion would be glad enough to point it out. After all, giving supporting evidence of all kinds, though of varying weight, is a natural and inevitable part of any gainful discussion. So as concerns normal and rightful postulation, and in light of the qualifications I gave, I have to say some of the almost why-would-you-even-go-there attitudes that have been registered here seem rather out of place, and a bit prejudiced.

I will admit that I've felt forced into being somewhat defensive here. But it's a beautiful Saturday morning, so by all means let's move on!

Someone in this thread even said that the Greeks will just say: "Well, of course we baptize them" as if that answers the question.

When I've seen this or similar sayings, particularly in informal settings, I've always taken them as simply being a rather puckish thought-provoker.

What I was trying to drive at and didn't communicate well, is that nobody is in real disagreement about the syntactic domain of the term.

Actually, over the years there has been considerable disagreement over the syntactic domain of baptismal terminology, even here on the PB, by representatives of both sides of the modal issue. The immersionist extreme was briefly addressed in post #7. With regard to the non-immersionist side - yep, I'll bring it up yet once again - this is particularly so of any who would still cling to the specious theories of James Dale (viz. "baptizō, which word does never express form of action..." - "the word baptize is not to be found in the New Testament in complementary relation to water..." etc. etc.). So while I do think what you're saying is probably (hopefully) true of the majority of level-headed folks, I don't think revisiting the topic from time to time is necessarily pointless or beating a dead horse.

In fact, baptize seeks to convey an idea that comes over from the Old Testament. Given the range of the meanings that the Greek word is used within the Septuagint, it's the reason that translators don't just translate the verse: "Go ye therefore, and make disciples, immersing them in the Name of the Father..."

I previously indicated my substantial agreement with this convention, contra the EO, again in post #7.

From there it's also a matter of whether or not, given what baptism signifies and the Biblical data, that I think the Scriptures themselves prescribe a mode in the use of the term - especially when that term is annexed to wider Biblical usage where immersiaon, pouring, and sprinkling are present in "baptisms" in the OT.

Assuming this is primarily in reference to Hebrews 9:10, there certainly isn't a consensus among biblical scholars that this is necessarily, or even most likely the case. But I realize there are some who do think and assert this, and that's fine. Each side should be willing and able to show viable support for their position, and give due consideration to the other. But I'll not go there now.

Put another way, there are those that have a very strong theological aversion to anything other than a common loaf and a common cup for communion. I'm not persuaded that the mode of the bread (one loaf vs small pieces of bread) is annexed to the command to eat anymore than I think a common cup is annexed to the command to drink. There may be good arguments as to why my Church practices it in a certain way but nobody is unclear as to what Christ's actual words were and a native Greek speakers isn't going to help me decide whether we ought to use a common loaf or not.

Now, considering this analogy in the present context is something I've always found quite intriguing, on several levels. But I'll need to elaborate later on in another post.
 
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The problem here is that the Greek EO Church, because it speaks Greek, is not the proper subject of determining how early Chrsitians used Greek words to convey theological ideas.

It's rather akin to arguing that, because we speak English, a debate about the 17th Century use of certain words convey the social, poltical, and theological meanings and a German speaker would trust a modern English reader's meaning simply beacuse the language is native to him.
To add to Rich's point--the Greek church nowadays publishes a version called Today's Greek Version, because of the how far removed they are from the Koine of the NT and LXX.
 
To add to Rich's point--the Greek church nowadays publishes a version called Today's Greek Version, because of the how far removed they are from the Koine of the NT and LXX.

I guess I can't quite see how what is seemingly being proposed here is of consequence in the present context. Several of the citations in the OP speak to this very matter, and take into direct account the relation between original and newer expressions that specifically relate to baptism. I think it would need to be demonstrated that a substantial loss of comprehension of the native meaning of baptismal terminology occurred somewhere in the process of normal lingual adaptation, before deciding there might have been a significant disconnect. Also, the way in which classical and biblical lexicons alike show there is a near identity in the usage and meaning of baptizo, as concerns all literary genres throughout Greek history, militates against what you seem to be suggesting. In addition, you're talking about a translation that is less than 30 years old, whereas many of the citations in the OP are from several centuries prior.

Perhaps what you have noted relates more to the basic reality that all societies, even those that very jealously guard their native languages, like the Greeks, recognize the need to adapt biblical translations simply to reflect more modern ways of speaking. Even then, some remarks by Dr. Alexander Fleet, Sr. (1843–1911; Professor of Greek and Comparative Philology at the University of Missouri) are instructive:

I would say that the modern Greek language is substantially the same in structure and in words as that spoken and written by the ancient Greeks. As I have frequently said in public and in private, Socrates and Plato, Xenophon and Demosthenes [all from the 4th and 5th centuries BC], and even Homer himself [c. 9th century BC—about when the Greek language was first put into written form], might today sit at the foot of the Acropolis and read the morning paper published in Athens with comparatively little difficulty. There has been much less change in the Greek language within the past 2,300 years than in the English within the past 500. (cited in, J. Briney, The Form of Baptism, 1892; p.193)​
I've seen more than one theologian postulate the providential reason God used Greek to convey the Gospel, is because it is an exceptionally stable language.
 
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This, taken from above, was helpful to me:

"Thus the issue between us and Baptists is not at all whether baptizein means to immerse or to sprinkle. One can grant, and probably will have to grant, that nowhere in the New Testament has it completely lost its original meaning of “immersing” or “dipping.” The issue is simply whether immersion was the main point or something incidental. And then we say the latter. It was immersion with the purpose of washing, and in order to portray purification. We rely on this when we claim that baptism by sprinkling is just as much the ordinance of Christ as baptism by immersion. From their side, Baptists believe that the Reformation has taken half measures, that Luther and Calvin did not fully clean out the Roman Catholic leaven, and that on them the duty rests to restore original Christianity in its purity."
 
Put another way, there are those that have a very strong theological aversion to anything other than a common loaf and a common cup for communion. I'm not persuaded that the mode of the bread (one loaf vs small pieces of bread) is annexed to the command to eat anymore than I think a common cup is annexed to the command to drink. There may be good arguments as to why my Church practices it in a certain way but nobody is unclear as to what Christ's actual words were and a native Greek speakers isn't going to help me decide whether we ought to use a common loaf or not.

I realize the OP is dealing with the philological aspect of the question, but in broadly considering some of what you've said here, transferred onto the topic of baptism -

It seems to me those in the broader paedo Reformed/Presbyterian camp can be placed into several categories when it comes to immersion:

1. Those who agree that the apostolic /NT mode was immersion, and that the burial symbolism of that mode is both intentional and significant. Virtually all patristic and medieval churchmen, both RC and EO, also fall into this category.​
Among the Reformed within this category there are two sub-groups -​
1a. Those who think mode is nonetheless adiaphora even in light of those factors, and therefore churches are simply free to make changes as they see fit. The rationale most usually given, when specified, is the unsuitability of immersion for infants and/or colder climates. This was the position held by many, and I think it safe to say, most Reformed theologians prior to the 18th century.​
1b. Those who did attempt to preserve the burial symbolism inherent in immersion, by ostensibly transferring it to other modes as well. The most notable holder of this position was Calvin (see the citations footnoted as 1 and 9 towards the end of this post), although there were also a few others.​
2. Those who don’t believe the apostolic /NT mode was immersion, and therefore any burial symbolism is seen as illegitimate. This view first appeared in the 17th century, but still remained relatively uncommon until the great baptismal debates of the 19th century. Even then it is a stance largely confined to some among the North American and, fewer, British Reformed.​
People will draw their own conclusions as to what all this may or may not mean, although if wanted I’m glad to provide historical evidence for my outline. Also, at risk of stating the obvious, the intended symbolism of cleansing or washing in water baptism has always and universally been recognized. Yet as mentioned earlier, when taking a birds-eye scan across church history, seeing the giving of the Holy Spirit as a central and intended symbolism in physical water baptism, is both a relatively late and sparsely held view, and is mostly evident among some within group 2.

Relative to the RPW, I also think the stricter Reformed paedobaptists are in terms of maintaining perceived details of apostolic/NT practice with overall regard to the sacraments (e.g. the common cup and loaf as you mentioned), the more they are boxed into taking position 2, despite any real or perceived exegetical difficulties. Yet in practice, such does make them more consistent in this area than those in group 1.

As a personal anecdote, those I came into interaction with when I started my first in-depth (no pun intended…) investigation into baptismal matters several decades ago, both personally and online, were in group 2. Initially I was very open-minded on all matters baptismal, but I soon found I had a problem with what I could only conclude was some “unnatural exegesis” (see the Schaff quote here) by these same persons, especially of passages that provide the most detailed information on the physical traits of NT baptism, like John 3:23, Matt. 3:16 (cf. Mark 1:10) Acts 8:39. Nor did I find the exegesis of passages typically adduced as showing non-immersion in the NT to be convincing, like Acts 2:41, 16:33, 22:16, and whereupon doing some deeper digging it seemed to me there were some translimitanus preconceptions being read in. Nor did I find the denial of the otherwise nearly universal and seemingly intuitive interpretation of Romans 6:4 and Col. 2:12 to be either probable, necessary, or good.

Ultimately it was other and much more important factors that led me to conclude credobaptism was the intended practice under the New Covenant, although any potential issues with mode were then effectively resolved as well. Yet seeing how the modal issue was handled by the proponents of pedobaptism that I was most familiar with, especially the aforementioned questionable exegesis, was a yellow flag that caused me to cast a more critical eye on what else they were maintaining in general. In one sense, then, I think what Schaff said about there being “nothing to gain” with unnatural exegesis is somewhat applicable to my own personal experience.

Finally, I’ve also said all that follows here before, but I’ll state it again just to make sure it is plain: I do not necessarily regard those who have not been immersed in baptism, or if such was received as an infant, to be sacramentally unbaptized. Individual faith and conscience are paramount over physical practice in the sacraments (cf. 1 Pet. 3:21), over which genuine believers and blood-bought children of God have, and will continue to disagree. On the other hand I do believe it is best to value and preserve NT practice and intended symbolism (the “sensibly portrayed” aspect) in the mode of baptism to the extent possible. That is why I advocate for it in the terms that I believe it to have been. Admittedly, how I tend to go about such may be deemed as for better or worse...

..But, come on in, the water is fine!...
 
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The uses of the baptizo word group I had in mind were more in the OT than in the NT as what is important is how a theological concept translates into the Greek usage in the NT.

You seem to keep confusing syntax with exegesis as if they are the same thing. It is not "unnatural" to exegetically determine that the NT does not prescribe a mode. Persons were ceremonially sprinkled by things that were said to be dipped in the NT and were, in sacramental sense, cleansed by the sprinkling of blood. In other words, it's not (again) that I doubt how the word may be translated but how it functions and then how it operates in a Biblical theological sense. I'm not really moved by Schaff's note that it is "unnatural" unless one has a poor sense of how words function across the Old and New Testaments.

I suppose what I'm driving at is that it is one of those things that Baptists seem to want Western communions to care about mode as much as they do where, theologically, it simply does not operate there. It is akin to how we think of the way N.T. Wright puts things in the foreground as if they are the operative NT ideas but obscure the foreground issues.

Of course, a lot of that is bound up int he notion that an entier Covenant Theology was lost to Church history, along with an Ecclesiology of regenerate membership, and the baptism of only those whom the Church believed were regenerate. Mode sort of comes along for the ride as evidence of how the Church lost purity on this point - except that it apparently didn't. It's the one thing that sor tof attaches to Baptist thinking that has some historical pedigree but, again, we can agree that Churches immersed and have no problem with it but also wonder why they were baptizing infants as well.

I suppose what I'm sayhig is that you have to do much more than simply assert, with Schaff, that exegesis is strange. It has to be demonstrated more than lexcially or historically but thoelogically as well. Even where the eary Church or the EO may argue for something according better with certain symbolism it doesn't answer a broder Biblical-theological issue.

Recent scholarship, for instance, has shown that early Church fathers like Iraneus had a farily developed Covenantal theology and accords with Bullinger's arguments that he was attempting to recover some Covenantal ideas that lay dormant or assumed for centuries. To argue that the issue of mode is unimportant in the recovery of Covenantal ideas actually ends up stabbing at the heart of the Baptist project because if, all you have is mode and the only way to protect that is to make historical arguments, then it destros the foundation of Baptist Covenant theology and Ecclesiology.
 
You seem to keep confusing syntax with exegesis as if they are the same thing. It is not "unnatural" to exegetically determine that the NT does not prescribe a mode.

There's no confusion with this on my part. What I posited is that certain passages most descriptive of the physical means of water baptism are unnaturally exegeted by category 2 non-immersionist, borrowing Schaff's and others' observations. Syntactical considerations are part and parcel of good exegesis, yet single passages like the ones mentioned can be and often are exegeted. When additional things are factored into ones broader exegesis on the overall topic of baptism, that's pretty inevitable, and so be it, but I haven't applied that terminology to that aspect of the question.

With regard to covenantal thinking among the patristics, sure, they did have their various concepts. But it was not substantially applied in the reasons they gave for infant baptism. I exclude in this statement the several places where a loose analogy is drawn between the age of administering OT circumcision as a justification for Christians baptizing newborns. That is not the same thing as basing the practice on a covenantal theology, nor therefore very similar to the foundation on which the superstructure of reformation era infant baptism was built. To say otherwise of the patristics would be to commit category confusion. Zwingli frankly acknowledged that he was blazing a trail for infant baptism on a basis quite different from any that had preceded him. Nor do I recall the reformers substantially citing patristic sources in support of their concepts of covenantal theology, particularly as might relate to baptism. I can't of course claim to have necessarily seen everything there may be on this topic, so if recent scholarship has in fact uncovered new things with regard to primary sources in the specific area of baptism, I am genuinely interested in looking at and considering such.

stabbing at the heart of the Baptist project

I have to admit that phrasing gave me quite a chuckle...
 
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the Greek church nowadays publishes a version called Today's Greek Version, because of the how far removed they are from the Koine of the NT and LXX
In fact, baptize seeks to convey an idea that comes over from the Old Testament. Given the range of the meanings that the Greek word is used within the Septuagint, it's the reason that translators don't just translate the verse: "Go ye therefore, and make disciples, immersing them in the Name of the Father..."
The uses of the baptizo word group I had in mind were more in the OT than in the NT as what is important is how a theological concept translates into the Greek usage in the NT.

Going back and seeing how it was brought up here several times, and as I have also seen similar things said elsewhere, I think examining the “range” of how baptizō is used in the LXX is a worthwhile exercise. In fact I did a study on this about twenty years ago, with the following results (slightly adapted).

(I can't get get quotations to indent, so each one is identified by a bolded beginning.)

Perhaps somewhat surprisingly, the verb baptizō occurs in the Septuagint only four times. In one instance it involves a non-physical formulation, and stands in place of the Hebrew word baath (startle; upset; terrify; appall).

Isaiah 21:4 (ESV): My heart staggers; horror has appalled [בִּֽעֲתָ֑תְנִי baath <> (LXX) βαπτίζει baptizei] me; the twilight I longed for has been turned for me into trembling.

In this instance most English translations follow the Hebrew and use the terms appalled or frightened. Two notable exceptions are the NASB and the 1917 JTST (Jewish Translation Society Tanakh), which use the terminology “horror overwhelms me,” seemingly taking the LXX into more direct consideration. The Brenton Septuagint Translation (BST) similarly reads “transgression overwhelms me,” reflecting the metaphorical meaning most often ascribed to baptizō—which, like all figurative language, is borrowed from the literal meaning of the word.

The first occurrence of baptizō in the LXX that involves a physical action is found in the story of the leprous Syrian general Naaman, as concerns his sevenfold bathing in the Jordan River, the meaning of which is very straightforward:

2 Kings 5:13–14 (ESV): But his servants came near and said to him, “My father, it is a great word the prophet has spoken to you; will you not do it? Has he actually said to you, ‘Wash [רְחַ֥ץ rāhas <> Λοῦσαι louō], and be clean’?” So he went down and dipped [וַיִּטְבֹּ֤ל ṭābal <> ἐβαπτίσατο baptizō] himself seven times in the Jordan, according to the word of the man of God, and his flesh was restored like the flesh of a little child, and he was clean.

In terms of establishing one of the verbal correlations shown above, there is no disagreement over the meaning of ṭābal:

טָבַל [ṭābal] Dip, bathe…transitive, dip a thing in...intransitive, dip (oneself)... (Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon {BDB})

טָבַל (ṭā·ḇǎl) ...dip, plunge, soak, bathe, i.e., place a solid object into a liquid mass, with a result that some of the mass attaches to the solid object, usually for a particular use or purpose. (Swanson, Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains: Hebrew Old Testament)

Baptizō also appears twice in the Septuagint’s translation of apocryphal writings. Both of the books involved are believed to have originally been written in Hebrew, but the only complete editions that have survived and include these passages, are Greek copies (hence, it isn’t possible to consider any immediate inter-lingual connections):

Wisdom of Ben Sira (aka, Sirach; aka, Ecclesiasticus) 34:30 [LXX, 34:25] (NRSV): If one washes [βαπτιζόμενος baptizomenos)] after touching a corpse, and touches it again, what has been gained by washing [λουτρῷ loutrō]?

This proverbial passage is in reference to the OT Levitical procedure used to cleanse persons who had incurred defilement from touching a corpse or grave, which involved both sprinkling and bathing:

Numbers 19:18-19 (ESV): Then a clean person shall take hyssop and dip [וְטָבַ֣ל ṭābal <> βάψει bapsei] it in the water and sprinkle [וְהִזָּ֤ה nazah <> περιρανεῖ periranei] it on the tent and on all the furnishings and on the persons who were there and on whoever touched the bone, or the slain or the dead or the grave. And the clean person shall sprinkle [וְהִזָּ֤ה nazah <> περιρανεῖ periranei] it on the unclean on the third day and on the seventh day. Thus on the seventh day he shall cleanse him, and he shall wash his clothes and bathe himself [וְרָחַ֥ץ rāhas <> λούσεται lousetai] in water, and at evening he shall be clean.

It can be seen that the LXX uses two different Greek words as synonyms in Wisdom 34:30 [25], baptizō and louō—exactly as it does in 2 Kings 5:13-14. And there is no syntactical/exegetical reason to suppose a difference of relationships or meaning between these two precisely-the-same verbal pairings. Furthermore, the latter verb is another term for which there is substantial agreement with regard to its meaning.

λούω; louō ...To use water to cleanse a body of physical impurity, wash, as a rule of the whole body, bathe. (A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and other Early Christian Literature {BDAG})

λούειν [λούω] is normally used for the complete cleansing of the body...in the sense to wash, to bathe. ...In the Old Testament [LXX] λούειν...is the regular translation of רָתַץ [rahas]. (Kittel, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament)

λούειν, which is not so much ‘to wash,’ as ‘to bathe,’ and λοῦσθαι, ‘to bathe oneself,’ imply always, not the bathing of a part of the body, but of the whole; λελουμένοι τὸ σῶμα [our bodies washed], (Heb.10:22). (Trench, Synonyms of the New Testament)

The most natural reading of the synonymic use of baptizō and louō in these two literal passages, then, is that they convey a bathing or washing of the entire body, which in one case is further explicated as having been done by ṭābal, dipping.

In light of these combined facts, the sometimes-stated supposition that the baptizō in Wisdom might directly correlate with the periranei in Numbers, must realistically be ruled out. Insofar as both sprinkling and bathing were involved in the cleansing process, the logical conclusion is that baptizō / louō jointly serve as a synecdoche, wherein they stand in categorical representation of the entire process. This is a convention frequently seen in proverbial contexts, and is also consistent with the common practice in Greek of making a concluding action within a larger series or process, a representative focal point.

The final occurrence of baptizō in the LXX is found in the apocryphal book of Judith:

Judith 12:5b-9 (NRSV): Towards the morning watch she [Judith] got up and sent this message to Holofernes [an Assyrian general holding herself and many other Jews captive]: “Let my lord now give orders to allow your servant to go out and pray.” So Holofernes commanded his guards not to hinder her. And she remained in the camp three days. She went out each night to the valley of Bethulia, and bathed [ἐβαπτίζετο ebaptizeto)] at the spring [πηγῆς pēgēs—spring; well; fountain] in the camp. After bathing [καὶ ὡς ἀνέβη kai ōs anebē—literally, ‘and when she had ascended (from the spring’)], she prayed the Lord God of Israel to direct her way for the triumph of his people. Then she returned purified and stayed in the tent until she ate her food towards evening.

The particular manner in which the referenced bathings were done does not correspond with any regular Jewish procedure or practice, although the text indicates it was in order to effect some kind of ritual purification. In that Judith was preparing to take on a leadership role in a daring plan to prevent her homeland from being ravaged by a pagan force, some scholars see it as conceptually akin to the purificatory bathings that Levitical priests frequently undertook prior to carrying out their duties of privilege or headship, whether initially (Ex. 29:4, 40:12 [LXX 40:10], Lev. 8:6.), or on a continuing basis (Lev. 16:4, 28, Lev. 22:4–6; cf. 2 Sam. 12:20). In all of the preceding cases the OT uses the verb רָתַץ rāhas, which the LXX then uniformly translates as λούω louō – again, meaning to bathe the entire body.

Otherwise the account of Judith’s bathing has no obvious historical parallels, which renders proper exegesis to first determining if all the relevant terms can reasonably be read, in context, in their normal senses, which they of course can. There is also corroborating literary evidence of religious bathings having been done by immersion in other Jewish writings from between the 3rd Century BC to the 2nd Century AD, most notably the rabbinic Mishna, as well as the empirical evidence of hundreds of ritual immersion pools (mikveh) dating from the 1st Century, that have been discovered in Israel.

And that’s it for baptizō in the LXX.

In terms of the broader βαπ bap word group, the LXX does not use the nouns baptismos or baptisma at all. The verb baptō (which is not directly used of religious baptizings in the NT) occurs eighteen times, of which I’ll give just a brief synopsis.

In twelve of these instances baptō translates ṭābal, and clearly denotes the physical act of dipping an item into a liquid, even though in some cases only a specified part of the subject (such as a person’s foot, or a portion of an object) is said to have been involved. (Ex. 12:22; Lev. 4:6, 17, 9:9, 14:6, 16, 51; Num. 19:18; Josh. 3:15; Ruth 2:14; 1 Sam. 14:27; 2 Kings 8:15) The LXX also twice employs baptō as the metaphorical equivalent of tabal (Deut. 33:24; Job 9:31). It does likewise one time with the Hebrew verb מָחַץ machats (smite; dash; violently plunge), in Psalm 68:23 (cf. Psalm 58:10).

The Aramaic verb צְבַע tseba (dip, drench; wet) is also twice translated by baptō, in Daniel 4:33, 5:21. These passages describe the result of King Nebuchadnezzar’s having become covered with dew, and are evidently used in a metonymic sense, where one appellation is put for another, in this case the effect for the cause (cf. such usage in Milton, “...a cold shuddering dew dips me all o’er...” Comus, §1). As such, most English translations employ the words wet or drenched in these verses, although the NRSV reads, “...and his body was bathed with the dew of heaven.” In similarity with the passage from Milton, Keil and Delitzsch (in loc. cit.) note the expression in Daniel is a “rhetorical form,” in line with the accompanying “hair like the feathers of an eagle, and nails like the claws of a bird.”

On a single occasion the LXX uses a rare adjectival form of baptō, βαπταὶ, in Ezek. 23:14-15, where it stands in place of the Hebrew סָרַח sarach (to be free; unrestrained). In closely following the Hebrew, most English translations use the term flowing. The LXX’s interpretation somewhat differs, as it assigns a meaning of dyed [turbans] (see, BST; J. Lust, A Greek-English Lexicon of the Septuagint), with the KJV following suit. This once again metonymic relationship between an action (dipping) and its result (being dyed) is frequently found in the classical Greek usage of baptō, note of which is also made by one of the EO writers cited in the OP (Argentis).

In summary, the LXX uses baptizō three times to convey the bathing of one’s entire body, and once to convey being mentally/spiritually overwhelmed. It uses baptō to either literally or figuratively convey the act of dipping fifteen times, and metonymically three times, twice to convey the result of being drenched, and once in the sense of dyed.

I have also seen similar claims made with regard to the “semantic range” supposedly seen in the use of baptizō by the Jewish historian Josephus (c.37–c.100 AD), and so previously carried out a similar examination of his works, and came up with similar results. To give a very brief outline, the fifteen occurrences of baptizō in Josephus’ writings, both literal and figurative, are most sensibly and typically translated with variations of sink (6), drown (3), immerse (2), plunge (2) dip (1) and overwhelm (1). In each case the readings would be entirely comprehendible by translating them with various conjugations of immerse, though doing so would not be best in terms of relating certain important nuances, like the destructive end of being drowned or sunk. Here is an example typical of how Josephus employed baptizō:

[Describing the murder Herod the Great ordered for his own son, Aristobulus IV] ...They drowned [βαπτίζοντες baptizontes] him as he was swimming, by holding him under the dark water, pretending as if it were only being done in sport, but not desisting until he was entirely suffocated. (Antiquities, 15.3.3)

Josephus didn’t ever use baptisma, although he twice used baptismos in direct reference to John the Baptist’s ritual baptism (Antiquities, 18.5.2). He only used baptō three times, each time in the aforementioned sense of something having been dyed.

The only other significant Jewish usage of baptizō is found in the writings of the 1st Century Jewish philosopher Philo (c.20 BC—c.50 AD). Altogether there are six preserved instances of such, wherein it is once used literally in the sense of to sink, and figuratively five times in the sense of being overwhelmed (3) or submerged (2). Philo did not use either baptismos or baptisma, while he did use baptō four times, three of which are again related to the process of dyeing. Philo’s single other use of baptō is in reference to the dipping of hyssop branches denoted in Numbers 19:18. The three distinct modal terms used in this particular passage are notable:

...Moses, having previously prepared ashes which had been left from the sacred fire... appointed that it should be right to take some of them and to put them in a vessel, and then to pour water upon them [ἐπιφέρειν epipherein—impose; lay upon; put over], and then, dipping [βάπτοντας baptontas] some branches of hyssop in the mixture of ashes and water, to sprinkle it over [ἐπιρραίνειν epirrainein] those who were to be purified. (The Special Laws, 1.262)

It is also of interest that in describing the exact same procedure, Josephus instead used baptizō, demonstrating the interchangeability of those two verbs amongst 1st Century Jewish writers, in terms of describing a particular physical practice.

Then they threw some of the ashes into running water, and dipping [βαπτίsαντες baptisantes] hyssop, they sprinkled [έρραινον errainon] them [on the unclean]... (Antiquities, 4.4.6)

In the end, I must say I find statements like the ones I’m responding to here rather puzzling. How does the observable range of meaning of baptizō in the LXX (or Josephus, or Philo) at all militate against understanding it as inherently (always) comprehending the idea of immersion? In terms of when baptizō references a physical action, where does anything in its usage by these Jewish sources ever discourage or at all militate against it denoting a dipping, immersion, or submersion—and if so, how so?

Again, for clarity, I’m not suggesting immersion is necessarily the best way to always translate baptizō, especially when it is used in reference to a ceremonial practice or cultic concept, where the purpose of purification (washing/cleansing) or consecration (baptize/baptism) is the paramount point. Yet neither can I find any reason, whether philologically or by context, to suppose the action of immersion is ever absent from baptizō in these settings (à la, Beza, Gomarus, Meyer, H. Berkhof, et al.).
 
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Again, for clarity, I’m not suggesting immersion is necessarily the best way to always translate baptizō, especially when it is used in reference to a ceremonial practice or cultic concept, where the purpose of purification (washing/cleansing) or consecration (baptize/baptism) is the paramount point. Yet neither can I find any reason, whether philologically or by context, to suppose the action of immersion is ever absent from baptizō in these settings (à la, Beza, Gomarus, Meyer, H. Berkhof, et al.).
I think you answered your own quetion in this last paragraph. The issue is that, ceremonially, the person being ceremonially cleansed was not necessarily immersed. A thing may be immersed in order to perform the ritual rite - the sprikling of blood as an example. The rite itself was a cleansing rite. Even when you're reading of someone washing themselves, would they not be "washed" by being next to a body of water. Do you supose, for instance, that Judith was going into the living spring, up to her head, in order to bathe and coming back soaking wet or having taken all of her clothes off with soldiers nearby?
 
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