Thanks for the replies.
This is the debate (which has been had here before) in my sunday school class, someone was of the opinion, we are to shut the door on them, not let them in church, don't associate with them at all, stop being their friend, etc. They used this verse to support that stance.
While I could see this could be an option in an extreme case, I felt, baring one from the Lord's Supper, having a public announcement of sin, was enough, and letting the person come to hear the word, and to associate with them, outside of church, would be tools to bring them to saving faith or repentence.
In one of the debates here, I thought I remembered someone saying, this text, WAS REFERRING TO THE LORD'S SUPPER, NOT JUST ANY MEAL.
After searching, I'm not finding that in a commentary, so was wondering if I imagined it, or if anybody had that take on the verse. I stated in my sunday school class, that some took this verse to mean the Lord's Supper, so, I want to make a correction, if I'm wrong.
I agree, with the, "at least", stated above.
That this is not particularly about the Lord's Supper, but, it def. includes it. I have read, as stated, commentaters who say, the meal is in context of Christian setting, with the goal being, we don't want an unrepentent fornicator associated with being a Christian, but, we can "eat" with them in a non Christian environment, hoping to evangelize, the now considered, "unbelieving brother or sister".
Just to summarize...
