I was preparing for a class on Ephesians 5:18-24 tonight and noticed that Ephesians 5:21-24 is one sentence in the Greek:
21 Ὑποτασσόμενοι ἀλλήλοις ἐν φόβῳ Χριστοῦ, * 22 αἱ γυναῖκες τοῖς ἰδίοις ἀνδράσιν ὡς τῷ κυρίῳ, 23 ὅτι ἀνήρ ἐστιν κεφαλὴ τῆς γυναικὸς ὡς καὶ ὁ Χριστὸς κεφαλὴ τῆς ἐκκλησίας, αὐτὸς σωτὴρ τοῦ σώματος· 24 ἀλλʼ ὡς ἡ ἐκκλησία ὑποτάσσεται τῷ Χριστῷ, οὕτως καὶ αἱ γυναῖκες τοῖς ἀνδράσιν ἐν παντί.
My rough translation:
Becoming subject to one another in the Lord, the wives to their own husbands as to the Lord (for husband is head of the wife even as Christ is head of the Church, he is savior of the body); therefore as the Church is becoming subject to Christ, thus the wives to their husbands in everything.
I've noticed that English translations tend to make v. 21 an imperative (Submit yourselves one to another...) and break up the other clauses in verse 22-23) into separate sentences. Is there anything to be said to the idea that the whole sentence ought to be treated in such a way that verses 21-23 ought to be seen as setting the stage for the conclusion in verse 24?
I'm wrestling with any theological significance if we see v. 21 less as a stand-alone imperative and more as a clause that describes the manner of submission in v.24.
21 Ὑποτασσόμενοι ἀλλήλοις ἐν φόβῳ Χριστοῦ, * 22 αἱ γυναῖκες τοῖς ἰδίοις ἀνδράσιν ὡς τῷ κυρίῳ, 23 ὅτι ἀνήρ ἐστιν κεφαλὴ τῆς γυναικὸς ὡς καὶ ὁ Χριστὸς κεφαλὴ τῆς ἐκκλησίας, αὐτὸς σωτὴρ τοῦ σώματος· 24 ἀλλʼ ὡς ἡ ἐκκλησία ὑποτάσσεται τῷ Χριστῷ, οὕτως καὶ αἱ γυναῖκες τοῖς ἀνδράσιν ἐν παντί.
My rough translation:
Becoming subject to one another in the Lord, the wives to their own husbands as to the Lord (for husband is head of the wife even as Christ is head of the Church, he is savior of the body); therefore as the Church is becoming subject to Christ, thus the wives to their husbands in everything.
I've noticed that English translations tend to make v. 21 an imperative (Submit yourselves one to another...) and break up the other clauses in verse 22-23) into separate sentences. Is there anything to be said to the idea that the whole sentence ought to be treated in such a way that verses 21-23 ought to be seen as setting the stage for the conclusion in verse 24?
I'm wrestling with any theological significance if we see v. 21 less as a stand-alone imperative and more as a clause that describes the manner of submission in v.24.