Erasmus Sarcerius on the mediatorial subordination of Christ

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Reformed Covenanter

Cancelled Commissioner
Paul is right to subordinate Jesus Christ the Son to God the Father because he is the intermediary through whom the righteousness and peace of God the Father reaches our consciences—he is the one who confers the righteousness and peace that God the Father has ordained for us. This verse tells us something about God the Father and God the Son. God the Father is the ultimate source of our righteousness, peace and salvation. Christ Jesus the Son is the intermediary through whom we receive that righteousness, peace and salvation—in other words, he is the one who delivers them to us.

The point here is that God the Father does not justify anybody apart from Christ, nor does he give anyone peace of mind apart from him. Likewise, it is plain from this what the gospel is and especially what it teaches, which is that the grace and peace of God the Father is manifested to us in our Lord Jesus Christ. To put it another way, the gospel teaches that our Lord Jesus Christ gave himself up for our sins in order to rescue us from this present world, according to the will of God our Father. ...

For the reference, see Erasmus Sarcerius on the mediatorial subordination of Christ.
 

PezLad

Puritan Board Freshman
Is it correct to say that Christ gave his body for every single man who has ever lived insofar as the punishment upon his body is a type, that typifies the punishment sinners deserve for the works of their flesh in this life alone? That Christ bore in his body a punishment which typifies what all sinners deserve upon their flesh, yet on Christs soul only was the sins of the elect placed. Hence, Christs atoning work is efficient and sufficient only for the elect, but his body typified the punishment all sinners deserve. Furthermore, can i ask the Father to forgive other persons not for their sake but my sake, especially family members who are unsaved? I am thinking of generational iniquity in light of the traducianism view of the soul, that my soul is wholly the from generation of my parents and so in a way i do inherit their iniquities, and ask the Father to forgive them for my sake, and not for theirs? Is their any merit in considering my soul and body as one with my parents unto Adam, one original sin, and a corporate and generational body of iniquity present in me, one original sin from which all the works of the flesh manifest in each generation unto me? In this way, just as Christs body was given for all, so my soul inherits the iniquity of my fathers unto Adam, so that all their sin may be forgiven for my sake and not theirs, since the works of their flesh were punished on Christs body, yet their spiritual sin, the exchange of the glory of God for a lie remains, and so they still inherit hell, for their soul is not atoned for, but their body reconciled unto Christ, their corpses lying at the foot of the cross and not on it, killed, but not raised with him, under his feet and not in his body spiritually. I am trying to fully understand the corporate aspect of salvation, and tend to think that the Spirit of Christ is trying to point out some corporate aspect i am missing. I know that in my Fathers seed is all the iniquity of his Fathers even unto Adam, and that so my seed is the fruit of original sin and the personal sin of all before me, such that i am forgiven for more than just my own personal sin, but sin inherited from before, both in the body and in the soul (not their souls but mine), which would explain the fiery and strange trial of the Christian. By recognizing the universality of Christs bodily punishment can i not receive the undoing of the stubbornness of my own flesh even unto Adam? So i trace back to Adam, receive the forgiveness of his original sin, and then have the new seed of Christ in me, his rightousness, the new creation is then shown in me? My reasoning follows John 3, distinguishing the flesh from the Spirit, the body and the soul, natural things and spiritual things.
 

Reformed Covenanter

Cancelled Commissioner
Is it correct to say that Christ gave his body for every single man who has ever lived insofar as the punishment upon his body is a type, that typifies the punishment sinners deserve for the works of their flesh in this life alone? That Christ bore in his body a punishment which typifies what all sinners deserve upon their flesh, yet on Christs soul only was the sins of the elect placed. Hence, Christs atoning work is efficient and sufficient only for the elect, but his body typified the punishment all sinners deserve. Furthermore, can i ask the Father to forgive other persons not for their sake but my sake, especially family members who are unsaved? I am thinking of generational iniquity in light of the traducianism view of the soul, that my soul is wholly the from generation of my parents and so in a way i do inherit their iniquities, and ask the Father to forgive them for my sake, and not for theirs? Is their any merit in considering my soul and body as one with my parents unto Adam, one original sin, and a corporate and generational body of iniquity present in me, one original sin from which all the works of the flesh manifest in each generation unto me? In this way, just as Christs body was given for all, so my soul inherits the iniquity of my fathers unto Adam, so that all their sin may be forgiven for my sake and not theirs, since the works of their flesh were punished on Christs body, yet their spiritual sin, the exchange of the glory of God for a lie remains, and so they still inherit hell, for their soul is not atoned for, but their body reconciled unto Christ, their corpses lying at the foot of the cross and not on it, killed, but not raised with him, under his feet and not in his body spiritually. I am trying to fully understand the corporate aspect of salvation, and tend to think that the Spirit of Christ is trying to point out some corporate aspect i am missing. I know that in my Fathers seed is all the iniquity of his Fathers even unto Adam, and that so my seed is the fruit of original sin and the personal sin of all before me, such that i am forgiven for more than just my own personal sin, but sin inherited from before, both in the body and in the soul (not their souls but mine), which would explain the fiery and strange trial of the Christian. By recognizing the universality of Christs bodily punishment can i not receive the undoing of the stubbornness of my own flesh even unto Adam? So i trace back to Adam, receive the forgiveness of his original sin, and then have the new seed of Christ in me, his rightousness, the new creation is then shown in me? My reasoning follows John 3, distinguishing the flesh from the Spirit, the body and the soul, natural things and spiritual things.

Are you sure this post is in the correct thread? I am struggling to make the connection between this post and the OP. Also, it would be an idea to use paragraph breaks as a paragraph this long is very difficult to read. One grammatical point, when you are referring to something belonging to Christ it is Christ's not Christs.
 

PezLad

Puritan Board Freshman
Sorry. Sometimes i have a question and look for any post to get my questions answered.
 
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