Exegeting I Corinthians 15:22

[sotzo]

"For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive."

This text seems to be evidence for unlimited atonement. On the principle of Scripture interprets Scripture it clearly cannot mean that, but what then is the appropriate interpretation?

As I see Paul's argument, if "all" does not mean everyone in the latter part of the verse, then that would suggest that death does not apply to everyone. Yet death applies to everyone, so how does the latter part of the verse connect without applying to everyone in the same way as the first part of the verse?

 

[Davidius]

Good question. Paul's language is very striking. He says as in Adam, so in Christ. In other words, in the same way that whatever he's saying about Adam is true, it's true about Christ.

 

[Kim G]

"For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive."

Maybe in means that "all" those who are in Adam die, while "all" those who are in Christ will be made alive?

So, not ALL are in Christ. But for those that are in Christ, ALL will be made alive.

 

[Confessor]

"For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive."

Maybe in means that "all" those who are in Adam die, while "all" those who are in Christ will be made alive?

So, not ALL are in Christ. But for those that are in Christ, ALL will be made alive.

Yeah, that's pretty much it.

"For as [all born] in Adam [...] die, so [all born] in Christ [...] will be made alive."

What is more, it wouldn't give any hope to the Arminian, for if the "all" in the second half of the verse referred to all men without exception, the verse would clearly be teaching universalism.

 

[Davidius]

"For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive."

Maybe in means that "all" those who are in Adam die, while "all" those who are in Christ will be made alive?

So, not ALL are in Christ. But for those that are in Christ, ALL will be made alive.

Yeah, that's pretty much it.

"For as [all born] in Adam [...] die, so [all born] in Christ [...] will be made alive."

What is more, it wouldn't give any hope to the Arminian, for if the "all" in the second half of the verse referred to all men without exception, the verse would clearly be teaching universalism.

I'm no universalist, just concerned about syntax. Are you somehow getting that from the text itself, or can we only interpret this text non-universally be drawing in what we know from other places? The text itself doesn't seem to place a limitation on πάντες.

 

[Confessor]

Maybe in means that "all" those who are in Adam die, while "all" those who are in Christ will be made alive?

So, not ALL are in Christ. But for those that are in Christ, ALL will be made alive.

Yeah, that's pretty much it.

"For as [all born] in Adam [...] die, so [all born] in Christ [...] will be made alive."

What is more, it wouldn't give any hope to the Arminian, for if the "all" in the second half of the verse referred to all men without exception, the verse would clearly be teaching universalism.

I'm no universalist, just concerned about syntax. Are you somehow getting that from the text itself, or can we only interpret this text non-universally be drawing in what we know from other places? The text itself doesn't seem to place a limitation on πάντες.

It's not obvious from the text (even though the next verse refers to "those who belong to him." In fact, if that were the only verse in the Bible pertaining to salvation, it would seem that universalism was the case. However, in light of other Scripture, it would seem clear that the "in Adam all" and "in Christ all" must be reversible -- "all in Adam" and "all in Christ."

 

[Kim G]

Yeah, that's pretty much it.

"For as [all born] in Adam [...] die, so [all born] in Christ [...] will be made alive."

What is more, it wouldn't give any hope to the Arminian, for if the "all" in the second half of the verse referred to all men without exception, the verse would clearly be teaching universalism.

I'm no universalist, just concerned about syntax. Are you somehow getting that from the text itself, or can we only interpret this text non-universally be drawing in what we know from other places? The text itself doesn't seem to place a limitation on πάντες.

It's not obvious from the text (even though the next verse refers to "those who belong to him." In fact, if that were the only verse in the Bible pertaining to salvation, it would seem that universalism was the case. However, in light of other Scripture, it would seem clear that the "in Adam all" and "in Christ all" must be reversible -- "all in Adam" and "all in Christ."

You lost me at πάντες.

In Adam, all die.
In Christ, all are made alive.

Both are true statements. The question would be, who is in Adam? Who is in Christ? This qualifies the "all" in both statements.

 

[Contra_Mundum]

In Adam ALL-IN-ADAM die.
So, then,
In Christ ALL-IN-Christ are made alive.

This is a verse affirming federal theology.

The only other option is to assume universalism (not unlimited atonement, strictly, but the implication of a truly unlimited atonement).

If ALL HUMANITY (making both part of the sentence ALL apply to the same universe) is made alive, then no one is going to hell, because there are/will be forever no spiritually alive persons there.

 

[sotzo]

In Adam ALL-IN-ADAM die.
So, then,
In Christ ALL-IN-Christ are made alive.

This is a verse affirming federal theology.

The only other option is to assume universalism (not unlimited atonement, strictly, but the implication of a truly unlimited atonement).

If ALL HUMANITY (making both part of the sentence ALL apply to the same universe) is made alive, then no one is going to hell, because there are/will be forever no spiritually alive persons there.

I think your point about federalism cleared this up for me. Let me see if I understand....

The verse then is not using πάντες in an antededent way to mean "everyone living"...but rather, it is emphasizing the curses (in the case of Adam) and benefits (in the case of Christ) for all those to which those curses and benefits apply. It just so happens that πάντες with respect to Adam incidentally includes everyone because he is every human's federal head. So, in the same way, as what goes for Adam (sin/death) goes for ALL those who come after him, what goes for Christ (righteousness/life) goes for ALL those who are His.

If this is the case, then it would appear where I went wrong was interpreting πάντες in a way that limited its interpretation to simply the sum total of humanity rather than see its usage here as referring to the "what goes for one, goes for the all to whom that one represents (ie federalism)" framework.

Is this correct?

 

[Pergamum]

Paul wrote both of the Corinthians epistles. So his meaning and use of language must be similar in both epistles. IN II Cor. 5 he uses universal language as well in a way that DEMANDS limited atonement:

14For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead:

15And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.

16Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we him no more.

17Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.

 

[Presbyterian Deacon]

You lost me at πάντες.

πάντες is the Greek word for "ALL"