timmopussycat
Puritan Board Junior
Frankly, given the fact that Fee has been invoked in this thread already, I am absolutely insensate to how such a textually sensitive expert as Fee can make the case he does for ruling out the Corinthian variant as unoriginal. If we are permitted such lattitude in dismissing verses we disagree with, I can think of a bunch of 'em that would make my life a lot easier to live if they were not in the New Testament!
Having studied under Fee on the point at issue, my guess is that Fee's background in Pre-charismatic Pentecostalism has overruled his exegetical judgment in this particular case. If you read his commentary on 1 Timothy, you find him presenting possibilities as certainties, a mistake he does not usually make.
Fee actually does have 2 good points to make in commenting on 1 Cor. 14 34,35, namely something odd does seem to have happened in the textual transmission of these verses; and that how the law is cited here, by indirect reference rather than explicit citation, is unparalleled in Paul.
His other claim that the law does not say what the Paul says it says is more problematic, Paul may be referring to an inference drawn from the law rather than a direct statement therof, and the inference that women should remain silent while teaching was going on could, in Jewish contexts, have been easily drawn from either the relevant creation or the fall texts.
But to say that these 3 points make it certain that the text is a non-Pauline interpretation is once again mistaking a possibility for a certainty.
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