SoldierOfTheRock
Puritan Board Freshman
I think many of us would agree that this thing of God's providence, or the view that God controls everything that happens is quite hard to understand. On one hand it makes perfect sense because to a logical person God cannnot control anything without controling all things.
Yet there are certain questions that come to mind, such as sin. How can God be in complete control over all men (their thoughts and actions) and still judge them? If it were not for Gen 50:20 and Romans 9 I think I would have a hard time proving such an antinomy. A verse that is normally used against us would be James 1:13 "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:"
James 1:13 to me does not create a problem, becuase it says nothing about what God controls and what he does not, and upon further reading, as in the next few verses it seems to explain a little more of this puzzle of providence.
James 1:13-15 "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death."
Maybe I am not making much sense just yet, I do not have nearly as much understanding as most of you on the board, but thats why it is great to come here and read everyones articles. - I shall continue to explain what my thoughts are on this subject.
When I read James 1:13-15 I think about Gen 50:20 where Joseph's brother are asking that he not punish them for their evil actions so many years before. When Joseph replies:
Gen 50:20 "But as for you, ye thought evil against me; [but] God meant it unto good, to bring to pass, as [it is] this day, to save much people alive."
So James would be 100% correct. We can not say that God tempted us to sin. If I were to kill someone I could not go to court and use the excuse that God made me do it, even if it were a reformed judge. Truly if I were to take a life then God was done with that life, but for me to say that God made me do it is completely idiotic, even in view of providence. For while God uses the actions of men to bring about His foreordained plan men do not have the same motive God has. When Joseph's brothers sold him into slavery they did it because they were jelous of him, they were not thinking as God was- to save many people.
Ok, I believe I am done rambleing. I just thought I would come here for some good old critiqueing. If anyone knows of a better way to explain such a thought then, by all mean post it. If I have erred in some way in my thinking, then I beg you to post that.
Thanks in advance,
Joshua
Yet there are certain questions that come to mind, such as sin. How can God be in complete control over all men (their thoughts and actions) and still judge them? If it were not for Gen 50:20 and Romans 9 I think I would have a hard time proving such an antinomy. A verse that is normally used against us would be James 1:13 "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:"
James 1:13 to me does not create a problem, becuase it says nothing about what God controls and what he does not, and upon further reading, as in the next few verses it seems to explain a little more of this puzzle of providence.
James 1:13-15 "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death."
Maybe I am not making much sense just yet, I do not have nearly as much understanding as most of you on the board, but thats why it is great to come here and read everyones articles. - I shall continue to explain what my thoughts are on this subject.
When I read James 1:13-15 I think about Gen 50:20 where Joseph's brother are asking that he not punish them for their evil actions so many years before. When Joseph replies:
Gen 50:20 "But as for you, ye thought evil against me; [but] God meant it unto good, to bring to pass, as [it is] this day, to save much people alive."
So James would be 100% correct. We can not say that God tempted us to sin. If I were to kill someone I could not go to court and use the excuse that God made me do it, even if it were a reformed judge. Truly if I were to take a life then God was done with that life, but for me to say that God made me do it is completely idiotic, even in view of providence. For while God uses the actions of men to bring about His foreordained plan men do not have the same motive God has. When Joseph's brothers sold him into slavery they did it because they were jelous of him, they were not thinking as God was- to save many people.
Ok, I believe I am done rambleing. I just thought I would come here for some good old critiqueing. If anyone knows of a better way to explain such a thought then, by all mean post it. If I have erred in some way in my thinking, then I beg you to post that.
Thanks in advance,
Joshua