I noticed this I think a couple weeks ago and wanted to know what you guys think about it. In the opening of the Gospel of John in verse 11 we read:
"εἰς τὰ ἴδια ἦλθεν καὶ οἱ ἴδιοι αὐτὸν οὐ παρέλαβον."
Notice that the word for His own in the first place is in the neuter form ("own things") whereas in the second form it is in the masculine form ("own people").
I was wondering what you guys thought about this?
Is this to express the fact that Christ came to His own things (the universe, all of creation, the world, people, animals, trees, etc.) and in particular His own people received Him not (humankind or the Jewish people?).
I thought this was interesting. What do you think?
God bless,
--Ben
"εἰς τὰ ἴδια ἦλθεν καὶ οἱ ἴδιοι αὐτὸν οὐ παρέλαβον."
Notice that the word for His own in the first place is in the neuter form ("own things") whereas in the second form it is in the masculine form ("own people").
I was wondering what you guys thought about this?
Is this to express the fact that Christ came to His own things (the universe, all of creation, the world, people, animals, trees, etc.) and in particular His own people received Him not (humankind or the Jewish people?).
I thought this was interesting. What do you think?
God bless,
--Ben