he came to His own (things) and His own people received Him not?

[bpkantor]

I noticed this I think a couple weeks ago and wanted to know what you guys think about it. In the opening of the Gospel of John in verse 11 we read:

"εἰς τὰ ἴδια ἦλθεν καὶ οἱ ἴδιοι αὐτὸν οὐ παρέλαβον."

Notice that the word for His own in the first place is in the neuter form ("own things") whereas in the second form it is in the masculine form ("own people").

I was wondering what you guys thought about this?

Is this to express the fact that Christ came to His own things (the universe, all of creation, the world, people, animals, trees, etc.) and in particular His own people received Him not (humankind or the Jewish people?).

I thought this was interesting. What do you think?

God bless,
--Ben

 

[Elimelek]

Interesting, neuter plural vs. male plural. You're probably right in your interpretation. τὰ ἴδια according to Liddel & Scott could mean "private interests, opp(osite of) public" or "one's own property." Schnackenburg prefers "his own domain," translating the plural as a singular, probably understanding it in the same way as you do.

Maybe we must keep into mind that John 1 is creation language. The Word thus comes to what He/It created, his own property, but those reacting are the living creatures (humans).

οἱ ἴδιοι indicates, according to Liddel & Scott "... persons, personally attached to one... members of one's family, relatives." It could be the Jewish people, but it could also be mankind as you've rightfully indicated.

Kind regards