Skyler
Puritan Board Graduate
How is the head covering in 1st Corinthians 11 related to the head covering in the Old Testament?
Covering the head or face in the Old Testament was, in some cases at least, a symbol of disgrace or shame (the head and face seem to have been used interchangeably). In some cases, it was voluntary, as in the case of Haman (when Mordecai mortified him, Esther 6:12); in other cases, it was forced by someone else, as in the case of Haman (when Esther revealed his plot in front of the king, Esther 7:8).
There are a few exceptions. Moses, of course, covered his face to hide its radiance, except when he was either speaking to the people or with God; the Seraphim covered their faces with their wings; women are sometimes depicted wearing veils without shame (Rebekah, the bride in Song of Solomon), and even seen as publicly humiliated when their veils are removed (Isaiah 47:2, Song of Solomon 5:7).
So I have two questions.
First, am I wrong in drawing a connection between covering the head and covering the face?
Second, would the hypothesis that the veil is a symbol of submission or subjection (as in 1st Corinthians) explain the discrepancy between shame (in general) and lack thereof (Isaiah 47:2, Song of Solomon 5:7)?
Covering the head or face in the Old Testament was, in some cases at least, a symbol of disgrace or shame (the head and face seem to have been used interchangeably). In some cases, it was voluntary, as in the case of Haman (when Mordecai mortified him, Esther 6:12); in other cases, it was forced by someone else, as in the case of Haman (when Esther revealed his plot in front of the king, Esther 7:8).
There are a few exceptions. Moses, of course, covered his face to hide its radiance, except when he was either speaking to the people or with God; the Seraphim covered their faces with their wings; women are sometimes depicted wearing veils without shame (Rebekah, the bride in Song of Solomon), and even seen as publicly humiliated when their veils are removed (Isaiah 47:2, Song of Solomon 5:7).
So I have two questions.
First, am I wrong in drawing a connection between covering the head and covering the face?
Second, would the hypothesis that the veil is a symbol of submission or subjection (as in 1st Corinthians) explain the discrepancy between shame (in general) and lack thereof (Isaiah 47:2, Song of Solomon 5:7)?