Hebrews 1:3

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AV1611

Puritan Board Senior
Hebrews 1:3 "Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;"

How do you understand the above text?

The fathers and some modern divines have held that these words express the eternal relation between the Father and the Son. But Calvin, with others, such as Beza, Dr. Owen, Scott and Stuart, have regarded the words as referring to Christ as the Messiah, as the Son of God in human nature, or as Mediator, consistently with such passages as these, — “He that hath seen me hath seen the Father.” John 14:9; “He that hath seen me hath seen him that sent me.” (John 12:45). By this view we avoid altogether the difficulty that arises from the expressions, “the impress of his substance,” or essence, he being so, not as to his eternal divinity, but as a Mediator. — Ed. (http://www.ccel.org/ccel/calvin/calcom44.vii.ii.html)
 

MW

Puritanboard Amanuensis
The apostle is speaking of the person of Christ. Owen saw that everything stated of Christ here was applicable to Him in the union of the divine and human natures. So far so good. But one must explain how a *man* can be the express image of God's person. Here Owen acknowledges that everything that is said of Christ is owing to His divinity. It is because He is the God-man that He expresses God's exact character, specifically, because He is God who assumed human nature. To see Christ is to see God because He is God. This leaves us where the great majority of orthodox interpreters have brought us in the understanding of this passage -- that the divine person of Christ is the exact representation of God the Father.
 

BayouHuguenot

Puritanboard Clerk
Thanks to both of you gentlemen for your thoughts on this matter and teh others related to the Person of Christ.
 

bookslover

Puritan Board Doctor
To see Christ is to see God because He is God. This leaves us where the great majority of orthodox interpreters have brought us in the understanding of this passage -- that the divine person of Christ is the exact representation of God the Father.

Exactly - the Son of God incarnate is the exact representation of God the Father, without being God the Father, Himself, as I'm sure some heretic or other has probably thought during church history. The Father is the Father and the Son is the Son, and both (with the Holy Spirit, of course) are the one God. Different persons, same essence.
 

AV1611

Puritan Board Senior
The apostle is speaking of the person of Christ. Owen saw that everything stated of Christ here was applicable to Him in the union of the divine and human natures. So far so good. But one must explain how a *man* can be the express image of God's person. Here Owen acknowledges that everything that is said of Christ is owing to His divinity. It is because He is the God-man that He expresses God's exact character, specifically, because He is God who assumed human nature. To see Christ is to see God because He is God. This leaves us where the great majority of orthodox interpreters have brought us in the understanding of this passage -- that the divine person of Christ is the exact representation of God the Father.


Thanks :up:
 
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