In it he argues for Credobaptism by beginning with OT baptism for priests, and arguing for believers only baptism from there (I think in the same vein as Pascal Denault linking the priesthood of all believers to the priestly baptism, and arguing therefore that only regerate 'priested' believers are eligible for it). It seems to be the whole foundation of his book, that "Christian baptism is based on the baptism of Jesus, and the baptism of Jesus corresponds to OT baptism, not OT circumcision.
Simplified, my question is this: Is it true that Baptism in the NT copies baptism from the OT? OT baptism was a ritual announcing of priests, which would (given the priesthood of all believers) likely mean that baptism is not for believers and their children, but only for the "priests", who are all believers.
Simplified, my question is this: Is it true that Baptism in the NT copies baptism from the OT? OT baptism was a ritual announcing of priests, which would (given the priesthood of all believers) likely mean that baptism is not for believers and their children, but only for the "priests", who are all believers.