Tirian
Puritan Board Sophomore
John 1:16 And of His fullness we have all received, and grace for grace. (NKJV)
Hi all,
I'm interested in how to understand "grace for grace" in John 1:16. I didn't particularly find the NIV84 helpful or the ESV enlightening beyond what is there. After reading Matthew Henry's commentary I can't say that I have anything more than a general understanding of what it may mean. As in, I sort of understand the average of the sum of interpretations that I have read and generally agree with it!
In a nutshell - "grace for grace" seems to mean an expansion on "merely" grace. As in, the grace that brought salvation would have have been enough, but the grace we have received has not only raised us with Christ but also seated us in the heavenly places with Christ.
I would really appreciate thoughts on my "in a nutshell" understanding - if I am missing the mark or how better I could state it etc.
Hi all,
I'm interested in how to understand "grace for grace" in John 1:16. I didn't particularly find the NIV84 helpful or the ESV enlightening beyond what is there. After reading Matthew Henry's commentary I can't say that I have anything more than a general understanding of what it may mean. As in, I sort of understand the average of the sum of interpretations that I have read and generally agree with it!
In a nutshell - "grace for grace" seems to mean an expansion on "merely" grace. As in, the grace that brought salvation would have have been enough, but the grace we have received has not only raised us with Christ but also seated us in the heavenly places with Christ.
I would really appreciate thoughts on my "in a nutshell" understanding - if I am missing the mark or how better I could state it etc.