Andrew P.C.
Puritan Board Junior
Andrew,
Okay, we differ as to the first part of my statement, but what about the second:
Are you aware of the differences between the translations? Or more accurately, the Greek texts underlying them? Either the last twelve verses of Mark (16:9-20) are authentic, or they are not. Either 1 Timothy 3:16 reads "God was manifest in the flesh," or not, as per the modern versions (save those based on the Traditional Text). One version is superior (that is, correct) over the other. Are you aware of the issues and the arguments?
Ivan is right when he says there are threads here devoted to these questions, and which cover them quite thoroughly.
Is it solely Dr. White's testimony on which you are basing your certitude?
Steve
To answer your questions: No Dr. White's testimony isn't the only one i listen to, there are others like Dr. John MacArthur. Here's what he says about the last verses Mark:
John MacArthur said:The external evidence stronly suggests these verses were not originally part of Mark's gospel. While the majority of Greek manuscripts contain these verses, the earliest and most reliable do not. A shorter ending also existed, but it is not included in the text. Further, some that include the passage note that it was missing from older greek manuscripts, while others have scribal marks indicating the passage was considered spurious. The fourth-century fathers Eusebius and Jerome noted that almost all greek manuscripts available to them lacked vv. 9-20.