How can Christ's righteousness be imputed prior to the working of it?

[TryingToLearn]

My question here regards the actual mechanics of how this is possible. Yes, Christ's righteousness is imputed prior to His actual working of it, but my question regards how this is even logically possible. How can a non-entity be imputed? Likewise, put another way, how can Christ's death and satisfaction be counted to someone before Christ actually made satisfaction? If we receive such things in union with Christ, how could OT believers receive this things from Christ if Christ had not yet done such things?

 

[RamistThomist]

God is outside of time. It’s a poor analogy but think of it like an escrow account

 

[TryingToLearn]

God is outside of time. It’s a poor analogy but think of it like an escrow account

Are there any Reofrmation/Post-Reformation sources that actually speak in this way? I would think the question would have come up, but I'm having trouble finding finding where the they give to the answer to it.

 

[J.L. Allen]

Are there any Reofrmation/Post-Reformation sources that actually speak in this way? I would think the question would have come up, but I'm having trouble finding finding where the they give to the answer to it.

The Westminster Confession

The Westminster Confession of Faith (1646-1647) with Scripture Proofs

thewestminsterstandard.org

I hate to just dump the resource without pointing things our specifically, but that's all I can give right now. I would look through the sections specifically about covenants and soteriology.

 

[TryingToLearn]

The Westminster Confession

The Westminster Confession of Faith (1646-1647) with Scripture Proofs

thewestminsterstandard.org

I hate to just dump the resource without pointing things our specifically, but that's all I can give right now. I would look through the sections specifically about covenants and soteriology.

lol, yes, I've read the Westminster Confession. My question regards the mechanics of how imputation is even metaphysically possible (Christ's human righteousness not actually existing prior to His incarnation). The Westminster definitely does not address that question.

 

[greenbaggins]

Romans 4 says Abraham received the righteousness of Christ by imputation when he believed, not when Christ died. Paul uses that as a direct pattern for how we receive it. Your question was answered by the debate between Cocceius and Van Mastricht in the 17th century. Van Mastricht had it all over Cocceius in that debate. Something promised can still be imputed.

 

[J.L. Allen]

lol, yes, I've read the Westminster Confession. My question regards the mechanics of how imputation is even metaphysically possible (Christ's human righteousness not actually existing prior to His incarnation). The Westminster definitely does not address that question.

Ah, ok. I misunderstood the question. Westminster addresses that these different aspects of salvation occur before Christ came, but not necessarily how.

 

[John The Baptist]

I feel as though Romans 3:21-31 speak to this, especially v.25. Of course it then moves into Abraham and how he was righteous through faith.

The way I understand, v.25 either teaches he passed over the former sins of believers because of the promised righteousness of Christ, or God overlooked the sins of the world and there was no judicial wrath until after Christ. I prefer the first interpretation, especially the transition into Abraham’s faith in Ch. 4.

Very interesting topic. I think also related to the great mystery of the OT:

Exodus 34:6-7

6 The LORD passed before him and proclaimed, “The LORD, the LORD, a God merciful and gracious, slow to anger, and abounding in steadfast love and faithfulness,

7 keeping steadfast love for thousands,fn forgiving iniquity and transgression and sin, but who will by no means clear the guilty, visiting the iniquity of the fathers on the children and the children’s children, to the third and the fourth generation.”

 

[TryingToLearn]

Romans 4 says Abraham received the righteousness of Christ by imputation when he believed, not when Christ died. Paul uses that as a direct pattern for how we receive it. Your question was answered by the debate between Cocceius and Van Mastricht in the 17th century. Van Mastricht had it all over Cocceius in that debate. Something promised can still be imputed.

Do you know where Van Mastricht addresses this?

 

[Jerusalem Blade]

Brandon, the omniscient and omnipotent One knew before time that His decree concerning the salvation of the elect would be fulfilled; in His mind it was as good as done. Jacob and Lane both point to this when they (respectively) say, "God is outside of time" and "Something promised can still be imputed".