Since many would say that the 10 Commandments were just covenantal stipulations between the great King and and his Kingdom, Israel, why do so many others say that they are binding on all men at all times? Why can't we look at them as we do the rest of the OT law - that they are fulfilled by Christ? How do we know that they are binding on all men even today? Can't we just take the moral principles from them as we do the rest of the law? I am such a novice in covenant theology, the law, and any other topics this question encompasses, so you'll have to be patient with me and not leave out the basics. I ask this because I tend towards NOT thinking that they are binding on all men. But I have not yet actually tried to search for the answer myself. I feel inadequate to figure this out myself, as it requires knowing a lot of systematic theology that I haven't yet studied. If there is anyone on this board who thinks the 10C are just covenantal stipulations to Israel, I would like to hear from them too. Also, if I end up disagreeing that the 10C are binding on all men, would I be considered unconfessional and unable to participate in this board?