How common was polygamy in Jesus' day?

[Jake]

Polygamy is recorded quite early on in Genesis and seems to be common throughout the Old Testament and even regulated, though not blessed, in the law of Moses (e.g., Deuteronomy 21:15-17).

In the New Testament, we see Jesus reinforces the establishment of marriage as a creation ordinance (Mathew 19:4-6). We also see Paul assumes a woman being married to multiple men is adultery (Romans 7:2-3). Paul also requires office bearers in the church to be "the husband of one wife" (I Timothy 3:2,12).

All that said, it seems we see clear teaching against polygamy in the New Testament. I'm curious if polygamy was as common in this time period. Did Paul's requirement for elders and deacons make it difficult for many to make the qualifications on this account? Was Jesus' words reinforcing marriage between one man and one woman speaking against a common practice in the time he was speaking?

 

[BottleOfTears]

You know, I wouldn't have thought so, but that is a very interesting point. I also want to hear more on this.

 

[Jake]

Bump

 

[TylerRay]

Polygamy is recorded quite early on in Genesis and seems to be common throughout the Old Testament and even regulated, though not blessed, in the law of Moses (e.g., Deuteronomy 21:15-17).

In the New Testament, we see Jesus reinforces the establishment of marriage as a creation ordinance (Mathew 19:4-6). We also see Paul assumes a woman being married to multiple men is adultery (Romans 7:2-3). Paul also requires office bearers in the church to be "the husband of one wife" (I Timothy 3:2,12).

All that said, it seems we see clear teaching against polygamy in the New Testament. I'm curious if polygamy was as common in this time period. Did Paul's requirement for elders and deacons make it difficult for many to make the qualifications on this account? Was Jesus' words reinforcing marriage between one man and one woman speaking against a common practice in the time he was speaking?

Gill, Poole, and Calvin all say that it was a common practice for Jews and Gentiles in NT times (see their comments on I Tim 3:2).

 

[SolaScriptura]

Gill, Poole, and Calvin may say it was common... but from what I've read of Greek and Roman sources, while it *was* common to have a mistress, marriage was monogamous. Of course, the Arabians, Barbarians and other "unWestern" pagans may have commonly practiced polygamy.

 

[Contra_Mundum]

The following "internet-answer" contains some scholarly references on the specific subject. The answer overall is sound, but that is not an endorsement of whatever else one might find by the same author (not familiar with him) or on the site as a whole.

Polygamy in the NT period

 

[py3ak]

According to Everett Ferguson, "The prevailing type of marriage in Jewish, Greek, and Roman society was monogamous. Extramarital sexual relations, however, were readily available (at least in Greek and Roman circles), with prostitution and adultery common. Moreover, since consent was necessary for the marriage, the withdrawal of consent made divorce easy. We know more about the practice of the upper classes, but the indication is that the privilege of divorce was often exercised."

Backgrounds of Early Christianity, Second Edition (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1993), 69.

 

[Contra_Mundum]

According to Everett Ferguson, "The prevailing type of marriage in Jewish, Greek, and Roman society was monogamous. Extramarital sexual relations, however, were readily available (at least in Greek and Roman circles), with prostitution and adultery common. Moreover, since consent was necessary for the marriage, the withdrawal of consent made divorce easy. We know more about the practice of the upper classes, but the indication is that the privilege of divorce was often exercised."

Backgrounds of Early Christianity, Second Edition (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1993), 69.

This observation goes right along with Ben's comment above. I think we should emphasize the biblical, ideal standard as underscored by Paul:

the will of God to his servant, standard-set by the elder as exemplar for the whole community, is that he should be "a one-woman man."​

Thus, while the elite men of pagan society (who were doubtless aped by many lesser characters) maintained both the sham-standard of monogamy and kept women on the side, the leaders of the Christian society were to preserve the original creation ideal. They were to have one wife, and not disgrace that union by consorting with prostitutes, keeping mistresses, or covering their shame with the cloth of marriage, concubinage, or some other shift.

It practically goes without saying, but we may as well spell it out: that women likewise have a duty to the same standard of fidelity; she is to be a "one-man woman." And, that there are no other marriages than that of a man+woman is bedrock biblical/natural morality.

 

[TylerRay]

Gill, Poole, and Calvin may say it was common... but from what I've read of Greek and Roman sources, while it *was* common to have a mistress, marriage was monogamous. Of course, the Arabians, Barbarians and other "unWestern" pagans may have commonly practiced polygamy.

They didn't say that it was common among Romans and Greeks, but Eastern peoples.

 

[SolaScriptura]

They didn't say that it was common among Romans and Greeks, but Eastern peoples.

Fair enough... but remember that the original audience of the epistles were Christians in lands under Roman control. So almost certainly those cultural considerations drove the thought process of the human author and audience.