In Psalm 26:1 David says: 1 Vindicate me, LORD, for I have led a blameless life; I have trusted in the LORD and have not faltered. How could David say this? He did not lead a blameless life and surely faltered in taking the census, murdering Uriah, sleeping with Bathsheba, not dealing with his children properly, etc. Obviously, this is inspired scripture and is not in error. The question is, what does this really mean since it doesn't seem like it can mean the obvious?