How does definite atonement glorify God?
My understanding of definite atonement has been refined over the past two years. I am beginning to see "world" as a limited group.
“For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.
John 3:16
This is already limited to those who believe.
Also, before this:
The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!
John 1:29
Obviously world here doesn't mean everyone who ever lived or even everyone who hears the gospel.
I have two questions about definite atonement.
First of all, how does it glorify God? The way I understand this doctrine is that God would be unjust to punish Jesus for the sins of the non-elect because they are being punished for their sins. So, then you would have Jesus suffering for their sins, and then them suffering for their own sins.
Another aspect of this is: if the cross is all about God being justified in saving sinners the way that John Piper argues in his book "The Justification of God" and if we are to say that Jesus laid down His life for the sheep so that He laid down His life just for me; then, how do we explain how these two concepts work together. I know that everything that God does is for His own glory and the good of His people, but I still don't know how to explain how these two concepts work in tandem.
Secondly, is salvation available to all? I have always believed that it was, even after I came to believe the doctrines of grace. I have heard John Piper say that salvation is available to all. Is it really available to all, or only the elect?
My understanding of definite atonement has been refined over the past two years. I am beginning to see "world" as a limited group.
“For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.
John 3:16
This is already limited to those who believe.
Also, before this:
The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!
John 1:29
Obviously world here doesn't mean everyone who ever lived or even everyone who hears the gospel.
I have two questions about definite atonement.
First of all, how does it glorify God? The way I understand this doctrine is that God would be unjust to punish Jesus for the sins of the non-elect because they are being punished for their sins. So, then you would have Jesus suffering for their sins, and then them suffering for their own sins.
Another aspect of this is: if the cross is all about God being justified in saving sinners the way that John Piper argues in his book "The Justification of God" and if we are to say that Jesus laid down His life for the sheep so that He laid down His life just for me; then, how do we explain how these two concepts work together. I know that everything that God does is for His own glory and the good of His people, but I still don't know how to explain how these two concepts work in tandem.
Secondly, is salvation available to all? I have always believed that it was, even after I came to believe the doctrines of grace. I have heard John Piper say that salvation is available to all. Is it really available to all, or only the elect?