Whitefield
Puritan Board Junior
In translating the inspired text from Hebrew or Greek into English, how much liberty may the translator take in translating the text? I understand that there must be some liberty in order for the sense of the Hebrew or Greek to come through (especially in the case of idiom), but how much may the translator add, of his own invention, to the translation and it still remain inspired text? May the translator add to the translation or pad it with phrases which are not in the Hebrew or Greek in order to fill it out and make it sound better to the English reader? And is there a point where additions and paraphrasings degrade the text to the point where the translation could no longer be considered inspired text?