BibleCyst
Puritan Board Freshman
I'm not sure whether this is the correct section to post this in, but...
I have a question regarding the hypostatic union. Can Christ's two natures penetrate into each other? Or, are they both forever independent of each other; existing as one, but two none the less? In other words, could Christ's divine nature cause his human nature to be omnipresent? Or, to put it milder than that, when Jesus walked on water (which is something his human nature could not have done), was it only his divine nature that was walking on top of the waves? Or was it "the whole Jesus?"
According to the Council of Chalcedon (451 AD), his two natures could penetrate each other; even though they are fully independent of each other. Lutheran's still hold this view today. (Not sure about other denominations.) The Council of Chalcedon took place when the church was the Roman Catholic Church, so I was thinking there has to be a Reformed objection to this. Any insight?
I have a question regarding the hypostatic union. Can Christ's two natures penetrate into each other? Or, are they both forever independent of each other; existing as one, but two none the less? In other words, could Christ's divine nature cause his human nature to be omnipresent? Or, to put it milder than that, when Jesus walked on water (which is something his human nature could not have done), was it only his divine nature that was walking on top of the waves? Or was it "the whole Jesus?"
According to the Council of Chalcedon (451 AD), his two natures could penetrate each other; even though they are fully independent of each other. Lutheran's still hold this view today. (Not sure about other denominations.) The Council of Chalcedon took place when the church was the Roman Catholic Church, so I was thinking there has to be a Reformed objection to this. Any insight?