Notthemama1984
Puritan Board Post-Graduate
Paul says that sleeping with your father's wife (I assume this means step mother or something) was not condoned among the Gentiles, but I am curious why the Gentiles would not condone the act.
It seems that sexual immorality was not uncommon in the time. Socrates was a pedophile. Nero had sex with his brother and mother. Homosexuality was around. Xenophone advocated bestiality as having sex with the gods.
I mean the list could go on about the perversions that existed at the time.
So is Paul making a point that the Gentiles would not commit the act because the lewd act was considered improper in itself or would the Gentiles reject this act on the basis of stealing something from one's father or maybe something else that I haven't thought of.
It seems that sexual immorality was not uncommon in the time. Socrates was a pedophile. Nero had sex with his brother and mother. Homosexuality was around. Xenophone advocated bestiality as having sex with the gods.
I mean the list could go on about the perversions that existed at the time.
So is Paul making a point that the Gentiles would not commit the act because the lewd act was considered improper in itself or would the Gentiles reject this act on the basis of stealing something from one's father or maybe something else that I haven't thought of.