I Cor. 5:1

Status
Not open for further replies.

Notthemama1984

Puritan Board Post-Graduate
Paul says that sleeping with your father's wife (I assume this means step mother or something) was not condoned among the Gentiles, but I am curious why the Gentiles would not condone the act.

It seems that sexual immorality was not uncommon in the time. Socrates was a pedophile. Nero had sex with his brother and mother. Homosexuality was around. Xenophone advocated bestiality as having sex with the gods.

I mean the list could go on about the perversions that existed at the time.

So is Paul making a point that the Gentiles would not commit the act because the lewd act was considered improper in itself or would the Gentiles reject this act on the basis of stealing something from one's father or maybe something else that I haven't thought of.
 
Just because we can point to someone who does some particular action does not mean that the culture in general agrees. For instance, Peter Singer says that a 6 month old pig has more of a right to live than a 2 year old child and that beastiality is no different than interracial love. But he is in no way representative of the majority of folks.
 
Sure, it was bad, morally, but they still drew the line somewhere. Take Oedipus Rex, for example.
 
Oedipus Rex is a Greek tragedy of a man who was separated from his parents at birth, unknowingly killed his birth father, and then ended up marrying his birth mother. When he discovered what he'd done, he was so torn with remorse that he stabbed himself in the eyes.

See the Wikipedia page: Oedipus the King - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
 
I'm sure this sort of thing happened amongst the Gentiles occassionally, but Paul's point was that even the pagan Gentiles understood that this was wrong and would condemn those who commited such acts and yet it was being allowed to go on in the church of God without any sort of rebuke.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top