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And generally implying "I am not going to touch that even with a ten-foot pole!" That is, enjoying the anticipated spectacle to come. In other words, when elephants are dancing it is best to just get out of the way!Re4mdant -
what's that popcorn thingie supposed to mean exactly?
I always read it to mean "sitting back to watch the show."
ok, and thank you!And generally implying "I am not going to touch that even with a ten-foot pole!" That is, enjoying the anticipated spectacle to come. In other words, when elephants are dancing it is best to just get out of the way!Re4mdant -
what's that popcorn thingie supposed to mean exactly?
I always read it to mean "sitting back to watch the show."
AMR
Hello all,
One of the members on the Catholic Answers forum is still debating me on James 2:24, and he made the following argument:
James 2:23 is quoting Gen 15:6, which is an actual moment of justification-salvation, thus that is the context for v24. It would be equivocation for James to speak of two types of justification in verses 21, 23, 24. This argument is further strengthened by realizing the Greek text has the same root for righteousness and justify (dikaioo and dikaiosune).
Basically, he is arguing that Gen. 15:6 refers to a point when Abraham was justified (in the sense that Paul would use the term), and that James 2:24 is using "justified" in the same sense as Abraham was "righteous" in Gen. 15:6. This would imply that the justification spoken of in James 2:24 is in fact a legal standing before God, thus undermining the Protestant position.
This argument seems to have a weakness in it, but I can't put my finger on it. Any assistance?
I don't think it undermines the Protestant position at all. It may undermine the argument that you put forward -- that James is talking about justification before men there, and not God -- but that argument is not necessary for the Protestant view.
This argument seems to have a weakness in it, but I can't put my finger on it. Any assistance?
Rev. King,
I was asked by Mr. Flanagan to take a break from the Catholic forum (i.e., to stop posting altogether) simply because I asked one question about an explicit verse citation. I responded to him that I did not think it was necessary to go on a hiatus from the forums for that reason. I am familiar for the most part with several Catholic arguments, though obviously this does not imply that I have an exhaustive knowledge of them.
So then I return and ask for assistance with one argument among many that is being argued against me, and you essentially accuse me of arrogant snobbery? Even if I were being cocky and obstinate, how does that possibly justify your refusal to assist me -- and worse, your proclamation that you were refusing to assist me?
When I see you contribute to the thread just for the purpose of saying what you have said, I'm sorry, but I simply don't buy it when you tell me that you're not trying to tell me "I told you so." That's exactly what it looks like you are doing.
When I see you contribute to the thread just for the purpose of saying what you have said, I'm sorry, but I simply don't buy it when you tell me that you're not trying to tell me "I told you so." That's exactly what it looks like you are doing.
II am apparently underprepared in this particular debate on this particular point, and thus I asked for assistance. I did not ask if everyone could tell me everything to say on that forum.