I Samuel 10:25 Covenant?? Treaty??

Status
Not open for further replies.

ThyWord IsTruth

Puritan Board Freshman
I have been learning Covenant Theology more in-depth lately and in my daily OT Bible reading I am reading through I Samuel right now. Being more cognitive about the covenantal relationships in scripture as I came upon I Samuel 10:25 it looks to me as if the telling the people and writing it in a book then laying it up before YHWH is a form of covenant. God being the "suzerain" and the children of Israel being the "vassal". Maybe more of a treaty than a covenant? The people wanted a king so God gave them their desire within a covenant treaty.

Am I correct in my assertion? And if this falls under the main covenants, how do they relate? Could it be a precursor to the Davidic covenant?
 
The writing is more than likely an excerpt from the Law (Dt.17:14-20). Perhaps it also included language that eventually came to be included in 1Sam.8:9ff.

In any case, while the situation is evidently formal and has covenantal overtones, it seems to me that this ceremony is most properly referred to bringing forth and underlining (as it were) a particular provision of the original Siniatic covenant. It proclaims that this condition now goes into effect.

You have frequent "renewals" of the covenant in ceremony. The Passover event would be one, and it would include a reading of the Law-covenant, Dt.31:11 (which is then returned to its place, "laid up before the Lord," Dt.31:26.

:2cents:
 
The writing is more than likely an excerpt from the Law (Dt.17:14-20). Perhaps it also included language that eventually came to be included in 1Sam.8:9ff.

In any case, while the situation is evidently formal and has covenantal overtones, it seems to me that this ceremony is most properly referred to bringing forth and underlining (as it were) a particular provision of the original Siniatic covenant. It proclaims that this condition now goes into effect.

You have frequent "renewals" of the covenant in ceremony. The Passover event would be one, and it would include a reading of the Law-covenant, Dt.31:11 (which is then returned to its place, "laid up before the Lord," Dt.31:26.

:2cents:

Thanks for the quick response. I understand the "renewals" of the covenants through ceremony's and feasts but what seemed strange for me was the writing of it in a book. So would this have been written in the book of the law or a separate one. Any other examples after this event in scripture where something similar occurred between the people and a prophet, judge or king as a mediator between God and man? As far as a being written down?
 
I'm not completely sure what you're after, or why. Does there have to be (or not be) something else like this? And why just after...?

Anyway, not sure if the following will help or distract:
Is.30:8 "And now, go, write it before them on a tablet and inscribe it in a book, that it may be for the time to come as a witness forever."
 
I'm not completely sure what you're after, or why. Does there have to be (or not be) something else like this? And why just after...?

Anyway, not sure if the following will help or distract:
Is.30:8 "And now, go, write it before them on a tablet and inscribe it in a book, that it may be for the time to come as a witness forever."

Not after anything in particular. No hidden theological agenda. I just wanted to see if there were any similarities in scripture regarding this event and how it was written down. Seems like a legal warning from God through Samuel and the people did not heed it therefore it is written as a remembrance.
 
Btw the scripture reference of Isaiah 30:8 is what I was looking for. The people want it their way and not God's so God instructs Isaiah to write it down that it may be for the time for ever and ever.
Similar to what happened in 1st Samuel 10 and the people wanting to have a earthly king. In both passages the people in essence are rebelling against the authority of YHWH.

Thanks
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top