InSlaveryToChrist
Puritan Board Junior
Something that has been bothering me about Biblical description of regeneration is the language used in Ezekiel 36:26. Although I'm pretty sure that the reformed position of regeneration is that God gives a new principle into our wicked hearts to desire the will of God, I struggle with explaining this from Ezekiel 36:26 which states,
"A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh." (Ezekiel 36:26)
If we would interpret this passage of Scripture literally, the obvious sense would be that the source of our sin is taken away and replaced with a perfect heart (since anything that God creates is originally perfect). But if that were true, we would not sin anymore. Thus, John Gill explains the bolded phrase, "the Targum is, 'and I will break the heart of the wicked, which is hard as a stone;'" Or as Matthew Henry puts it, "turning a dead stone into living flesh." The obvious emphasis is on the word "heart." Depending on how we define "heart" in this passage we could say that, as a matter of fact, no old heart is taken away and no new heart is given. The "heart" of Ezekiel 36:26 must be understood in the whole context of Scripture. In Hebrews 8:10 the exact same event of regeneration is described, yet this time in other words,
"For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:" (Hebrews 8:10)
Here God does not promise an exchange of hearts, but rather an impartation of godly principles into our wicked mind and heart.
So, according to reformed understanding of Scripture, we should understand the "heart" of Ezekiel 36:26 as a principle; old principle of sinful desire is replaced with a new principle of godly desire.
But my question has to do with the heart language of the Old Testament:
Are there other places in the Old Testament where "heart" could be understood as a principle rather than the actual heart of man which is the source of all his desires, sinful and godly? If not, why does Ezekiel 36:26 use such language which is misleading to many readers of the Bible?
"A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh." (Ezekiel 36:26)
If we would interpret this passage of Scripture literally, the obvious sense would be that the source of our sin is taken away and replaced with a perfect heart (since anything that God creates is originally perfect). But if that were true, we would not sin anymore. Thus, John Gill explains the bolded phrase, "the Targum is, 'and I will break the heart of the wicked, which is hard as a stone;'" Or as Matthew Henry puts it, "turning a dead stone into living flesh." The obvious emphasis is on the word "heart." Depending on how we define "heart" in this passage we could say that, as a matter of fact, no old heart is taken away and no new heart is given. The "heart" of Ezekiel 36:26 must be understood in the whole context of Scripture. In Hebrews 8:10 the exact same event of regeneration is described, yet this time in other words,
"For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:" (Hebrews 8:10)
Here God does not promise an exchange of hearts, but rather an impartation of godly principles into our wicked mind and heart.
So, according to reformed understanding of Scripture, we should understand the "heart" of Ezekiel 36:26 as a principle; old principle of sinful desire is replaced with a new principle of godly desire.
But my question has to do with the heart language of the Old Testament:
Are there other places in the Old Testament where "heart" could be understood as a principle rather than the actual heart of man which is the source of all his desires, sinful and godly? If not, why does Ezekiel 36:26 use such language which is misleading to many readers of the Bible?