Notthemama1984
Puritan Board Post-Graduate
In a better attempt to fix by cracks in justification, I was reading aBrakel on original sin. He seems to make the case that Adam's sin was not imputed into the rest of mankind, but rather his guilt was.
CRS page 381 in the hardback and 473 in the .pdf
This is the first I have heard of that concept (maybe I should have heard this all along).
What are your thoughts?
PS. I do want to thank everyone a million times over for answering my simple questions.
Original sin consists of imputed guilt and inherent pollution. We do not understand imputed guilt to mean that man, due to his inherited corruption, must be viewed as being in the same condition as Adam; that is, as if he in actuality had committed the same deed which Adam had committed. This would not be the imputation of someone else‟s crime, but rather of one‟s own. This would be nothing more than a comparison between specific sins of specific people, and a comparison between sins as far as guilt and punishment are concerned. Then our sinfulness could just as well be measured against the sins of others, instead of against Adam‟s sin. Rather, by imputed guilt we understand the imputation of the original breach of the covenant itself, as was committed by Adam. By denying or distorting this truth the foundation is laid also to deny the pollution of sin as inherited from Adam, and thus of all original sin. This in turn leads to the denial of the imputation of the righteousness of Christ.
CRS page 381 in the hardback and 473 in the .pdf
This is the first I have heard of that concept (maybe I should have heard this all along).
What are your thoughts?
PS. I do want to thank everyone a million times over for answering my simple questions.