TannedIrishman
Puritan Board Freshman
An Eastern Orthodox asked this question somewhere
"Is the imputation between Christ & the sinner a transfer of human righteousness or divine righteousness? If human, would that not be considered Pelagian? And if Divine, why have the Incarnation in the first place?"
I think Christ had to come to earth because without dying in our place, there would be no way to transfer righteousness in the first place.
"Is the imputation between Christ & the sinner a transfer of human righteousness or divine righteousness? If human, would that not be considered Pelagian? And if Divine, why have the Incarnation in the first place?"
I think Christ had to come to earth because without dying in our place, there would be no way to transfer righteousness in the first place.