Tim
Puritan Board Graduate
I am speaking of the romantic kind of love that exists between a husband and wife. Hopefully I have been clear in my writing and you all can see what I am getting at. After this thread, I think I may have to start one on guns or heavy machinery or something like that.
If I say to a woman, “I love you,” am I not committing myself to loving her forever? If she returns with “I love you too,” then we have therefore both made commitments to love each other and really ought to get married. Our vows will then be to love each other until “death do us part”.
However, if she does not love me in return, and we part ways, am I bound to love her still? If I eventually marry someone else, must I still love the first woman? It would seem so, because love is forever and unconditional. Certainly, I could not say, “I loved you before but I now love you no longer”. However, something seems wrong about this because I would have to continue to love the first woman even though I married the second woman (and must now love her too).
On the other hand, if I am free to withhold my love for her, then love is conditional and I can give or withhold as I please. This also seems wrong.
What are the commitments involved in loving someone else?
I find myself wondering if I am guilty of eisegesis in my use of 1 Co 13:8 – perhaps this verse is comparing love to some of the more temporary aspects of the Christian life, rather than defining love itself.
Thoughts?
If I say to a woman, “I love you,” am I not committing myself to loving her forever? If she returns with “I love you too,” then we have therefore both made commitments to love each other and really ought to get married. Our vows will then be to love each other until “death do us part”.
However, if she does not love me in return, and we part ways, am I bound to love her still? If I eventually marry someone else, must I still love the first woman? It would seem so, because love is forever and unconditional. Certainly, I could not say, “I loved you before but I now love you no longer”. However, something seems wrong about this because I would have to continue to love the first woman even though I married the second woman (and must now love her too).
On the other hand, if I am free to withhold my love for her, then love is conditional and I can give or withhold as I please. This also seems wrong.
What are the commitments involved in loving someone else?
Eph 5:25 Husbands, love [agape] your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it (KJV)
Col 3:19 Husbands, love [agape] your wives, and be not bitter against them (KJV)
1Co 13:8 Charity [agape] never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away (KJV)
1Co 13:8 Love [agape] never ends. As for prophecies, they will pass away; as for tongues, they will cease; as for knowledge, it will pass away (ESV)
I find myself wondering if I am guilty of eisegesis in my use of 1 Co 13:8 – perhaps this verse is comparing love to some of the more temporary aspects of the Christian life, rather than defining love itself.
Thoughts?