Is the Lord's Day necessarily the Sabbath?

Status
Not open for further replies.

Dachaser

Puritan Board Doctor
So let's sum up some basics (for my own benefit):

-pattern of work 6, rest 1 established at creation by God (Gen. 2)

-this pattern was reinforced in the giving of the moral law (Ex. 20)

-God expected the Israelites to observe the Sabbath prior to the giving of the moral law; this, along with the pattern of Gen. 2 leads us to believe that it is an eternal, unchanging principle for mankind

-Leviticus 23:3 teaches that the Sabbath was to be a day of rest and a holy convocation for the people of God

-Jesus said that not one jot or tittle will pass away from the law until the end of the world

-Jesus calls himself the "Lord of the Sabbath" - and we are to conclude that he is still the Lord of the Sabbath

-God's people post-resurrection are clearly shown to be regularly assembling on the 1st day of the week. (for example: Acts 20). This leads us to believe that the day of convocation has switched from the last day of the week to the first day of the week.


Is this accurate?
You have articulated my understanding quite well, as I just don't like to called Sunday the Sabbath Day, prefer the Lord's Day...
 

Tom Hart

Puritan Board Senior
You have articulated my understanding quite well, as I just don't like to called Sunday the Sabbath Day, prefer the Lord's Day...

It's called the Lord's Day, because that's what it is, and it's called the Sabbath, because that's what it is.
 

Smeagol

Puritan Board Graduate
I just think that the OT Sabbath Day of Saturday was not given to the Church in the NC to be our Day to observe, but that the Lord's Day of Sunday became the Day for us now to observe.
David,

I think a better way to look at it could be said in this way (I hope this helps):

The Sabbath has always been the Sabbath (from creation), so while the specific Day the Church observed this moral command changed, the sabbath as God originally gave it, morally, has NOT (the pattern of 1 in 7). This only should ADD joy to our obeying the Sabbath today, because we can see the invisible string tying it all the way back to when our Creator spoke us (mankind) into existence! Sure it picked up some "shadowy" things under Moses, but the invisible unbroken string has always existed for God's people in obeying the Sabbath from Genesis to TODAY. After all this is the MORAL LAW we are speaking about.:detective:
 

Smeagol

Puritan Board Graduate
-God expected the Israelites to observe the Sabbath prior to the giving of the moral law;
Sounds mostly fine to me brother....I would only ask a follow-up question to the above wording.

Did not Adam have the Moral Law?......God has always expected his people to keep a Sabbath Rest (for the benefit of their very souls). The Moral Law by definition "Pre-Dates" the Ethnic/National Israelites. Do you see what I am getting at?
 

Dachaser

Puritan Board Doctor
Sounds mostly fine to me brother....I would only ask a follow-up question to the above wording.

Did not Adam have the Moral Law?......God has always expected his people to keep a Sabbath Rest (for the benefit of their very souls). The Moral Law by definition "Pre-Dates" the Ethnic/National Israelites. Do you see what I am getting at?
The rest day was placed right within Creation itself, and the Jews honored it as being Saturday.
 

Dachaser

Puritan Board Doctor
David,

I think a better way to look at it could be said in this way (I hope this helps):

The Sabbath has always been the Sabbath (from creation), so while the specific Day the Church observed this moral command changed, the sabbath as God originally gave it, morally, has NOT (the pattern of 1 in 7). This only should ADD joy to our obeying the Sabbath today, because we can see the invisible string tying it all the way back to when our Creator spoke us (mankind) into existence! Sure it picked up some "shadowy" things under Moses, but the invisible unbroken string has always existed for God's people in obeying the Sabbath from Genesis to TODAY. After all this is the MORAL LAW we are speaking about.:detective:
I think that you explained this very well, and I well continue to now see the Christian Sabbath as now Sunday.
 

timfost

Puritan Board Senior
David,

I normally refer to Sunday as the Lord's Day and not the Sabbath. The word seems to be generally understood as Sunday while Sabbath still may seem to refer to Saturday in our society. (As an aside, it was probably like this in the early church, too.)

With that said, "Sabbath" means "rest." Is the Lord's Day the Christian day of rest? Preference for terminology aside, let's not make a distinction without a difference.
 

Dachaser

Puritan Board Doctor
David,

I normally refer to Sunday as the Lord's Day and not the Sabbath. The word seems to be generally understood as Sunday while Sabbath still may seem to refer to Saturday in our society. (As an aside, it was probably like this in the early church, too.)

With that said, "Sabbath" means "rest." Is the Lord's Day the Christian day of rest? Preference for terminology aside, let's not make a distinction without a difference.
I think that when we call it either the Christian Sabbath, or the Lord's Day, its really the same thing.
 

De Jager

Puritan Board Sophomore
Sounds mostly fine to me brother....I would only ask a follow-up question to the above wording.

Did not Adam have the Moral Law?......God has always expected his people to keep a Sabbath Rest (for the benefit of their very souls). The Moral Law by definition "Pre-Dates" the Ethnic/National Israelites. Do you see what I am getting at?
That's what I am getting at. God expected the Israelites to observe the Sabbath even prior to the giving of the moral law (see Ex. 16), and this proves that it is not simply something that "came into existence" in Exodus 20 but that it transcends the Mosaic covenant and is an eternal, moral principle, just as the other 9 commandments.

Just because the moral law wasn't written down until Exodua 20 doesn't mean that it didn't exist...I mean, Cain killing Abel was still sinful regardless of whether the moral law was written down.
 

Smeagol

Puritan Board Graduate
That's what I am getting at. God expected the Israelites to observe the Sabbath even prior to the giving of the moral law (see Ex. 16), and this proves that it is not simply something that "came into existence" in Exodus 20 but that it transcends the Mosaic covenant and is an eternal, moral principle, just as the other 9 commandments.

Just because the moral law wasn't written down until Exodua 20 doesn't mean that it didn't exist...I mean, Cain killing Abel was still sinful regardless of whether the moral law was written down.
I think we are in agreement..but to be clear..God's people had been given the Moral Law prior to Exodus 16 & 20. From Adam to Noah the people still new and were taught the moral law. Exodus 20 is simply the clearest picture of the Moral Law...but is had been taught to the people from the time of Adam.

From the Westminster:
Chapter XIX
Of the Law of God


I. God gave to Adam a law, as a covenant of works, by which he bound him and all his posterity, to personal, entire, exact, and perpetual obedience, promised life upon the fulfilling, and threatened death upon the breach of it, and endued him with power and ability to keep it.[1]

II. This law, after his fall, continued to be a perfect rule of righteousness; and, as such, was delivered by God upon Mount Sinai, in ten commandments, and written in two tables:[2] the first four commandments containing our duty towards God; and the other six, our duty to man.[3]

III. Besides this law, commonly called moral, God was pleased to give to the people of Israel, as a church under age, ceremonial laws, containing several typical ordinances, partly of worship, prefiguring Christ, his graces, actions, sufferings, and benefits;[4] and partly, holding forth divers instructions of moral duties.[5] All which ceremonial laws are now abrogated, under the New Testament.[6]
 
Last edited:

De Jager

Puritan Board Sophomore
I think we are in agreement..but to be clear..God's people had been given the Moral Law prior to Exodus 16 & 20. From Adam to Noah the people still new and were taught the moral law. Exodus 20 is simply the clearest picture of the Moral Law...but is had been taught to the people from the time of Adam.

From the Westminster:
Chapter XIX
Of the Law of God


I. God gave to Adam a law, as a covenant of works, by which he bound him and all his posterity, to personal, entire, exact, and perpetual obedience, promised life upon the fulfilling, and threatened death upon the breach of it, and endued him with power and ability to keep it.[1]

II. This law, after his fall, continued to be a perfect rule of righteousness; and, as such, was delivered by God upon Mount Sinai, in ten commandments, and written in two tables:[2] the first four commandments containing our duty towards God; and the other six, our duty to man.[3]

III. Besides this law, commonly called moral, God was pleased to give to the people of Israel, as a church under age, ceremonial laws, containing several typical ordinances, partly of worship, prefiguring Christ, his graces, actions, sufferings, and benefits;[4] and partly, holding forth divers instructions of moral duties.[5] All which ceremonial laws are now abrogated, under the New Testament.[6]

I agree with you. The law is eternal and unchanging as it is a reflection of God himself, who is eternal and unchanging.

This is what I was getting at when I talked about the law being "written down" in Exodus 20, yet in existence prior to that.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top