chbrooking
Puritan Board Junior
Last month, my wife posted a question on the OPC web page. She had asked me, of course, but I pointed her to the OPC site, thinking she could get a much better answer than I could give -- I wasn’t sure I could give her much of an answer at all. Not being satisfied with the answer she was given, and being a bit confused about the matter myself, now that she raised the issue, I thought I’d post the question here. In other words, her question has become mine.
Any insights would be appreciated.
Though temptation came to Jesus wholly from without -- he was not, as James says "lured and enticed by his own desire," as sin could hold no appeal for our savior -- his temptation is said to have a comprehensive qualitative identity with my own temptations.
I am trying to wrestle with two things. I want to maintain opposition to the RCC doctrine that the desire toward sin is not sin, but only when that desire has borne fruit is sin born from it. The tenth commandment teaches otherwise.
I also want to be able to appreciate and take comfort in the empathetic help my savior provides. I find it very difficult to separate desire from temptation. I don't see temptation where I have no desire for the object of my temptation. How am I to understand, then, Jesus' temptation? I have a hunch that the answer to my question will also help me reconcile James 1:13 (that God cannot be tempted) with Hebrews 2:18 and 4:15 (that Jesus was tempted).
I am trying to wrestle with two things. I want to maintain opposition to the RCC doctrine that the desire toward sin is not sin, but only when that desire has borne fruit is sin born from it. The tenth commandment teaches otherwise.
I also want to be able to appreciate and take comfort in the empathetic help my savior provides. I find it very difficult to separate desire from temptation. I don't see temptation where I have no desire for the object of my temptation. How am I to understand, then, Jesus' temptation? I have a hunch that the answer to my question will also help me reconcile James 1:13 (that God cannot be tempted) with Hebrews 2:18 and 4:15 (that Jesus was tempted).
Any insights would be appreciated.
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