Pilgrim, Alien, Stranger
According to Heb.7:16, Christ has "the power of an endless life." Would it be possible for mere human nature to have an "endless" quality intrinsic to itself? Or would that be an attribute communicated to Christ's human nature from his divinity? We call this sharing "communication" (Latin technical term, communicatio idiomatum). We don't go as far as to say this sharing results in any of the Chalcedonian denials (without conversion, composition, or confusion), but it is a real sharing nonetheless. In contradiction to the Lutheran view, the Reformed deny that Christ's human nature becomes a genus maiestaticum, possessing the singular quality of all divinity (and therefore ubiquitous, and bodily present in the Lord's Supper, a presence according to both natures). That strikes us as just the sort of improper "conversion, composition, or confusion" Chalcedon prohibits, by making Christ's humanity a "+version, a 2.0" i.e. not-quite-the-same as the rest of ours (one inherent property of which is location, as opposed to omnipresence). Attributes of God that are not shared with his creatures are called "incommunicable attributes." If Christ's created humanity is granted that which is incommunicable, it's saying "he's just like us everywhere in humanity... except for how he isn't."I guess this is where I'm confused because I don't see how Jesus' divine personhood solves this.
To explain what I mean, it's true that Jesus has both a divine and human nature and both do what are proper to it and that both natures are united in one person. However, we wouldn't say that the unity of these natures allows Jesus' human nature to be omnipresent (for only God can be omnipresent, not a creature) or that it allows Jesus' human nature to be omniscient in an archetypal sense. This is simply distinguishing the two natures.
While I understand that it's the divine person of Jesus who suffered, I also understand that he suffered according to the only nature he could suffer in. That's what leads to my question regarding how Jesus' human nature could have endured infinite suffering since it can't receive any divine properties from his divine nature, which would make the human nature able to do something that isn't human (ie be omnipresent, omniscient, or in this case: doing something infinite)
There's no doubt mystery to this, but I'm wondering if I'm misconceiving something christologically and seeing mystery where it's unnecessary
It is the communication of attributes that allows for the sustainment referred to in WLC 38. This "help" does not change the quality of the human nature which remains completely as it is (if a perfect/sinless specimen). Our present bodies are corruptible by nature. Our glorified bodies will be incorruptible by nature; however, that does not mean that those bodies will have intrinsic persistence, but will be forever upheld by the power of God in that estate of glorious perfection. We will not become divine beings, with "life in himself" as Christ has, Jn.5:26. Our life is forever tied to his life.
If we will continue in glory eternally (infinitely) by Christ's communication of his life to us; how much more is he able to sustain his own human nature by an even more wonderful communication of his own divine power, so that even in the endurance of infinite wrath in our place on the cross he maintains that humanity inviolate?