BobVigneault
Bawberator
Job 1:4 His sons used to go and hold a feast in the house of each one on his day, and they would send and invite their three sisters to eat and drink with them. 5 And when the days of the feast had run their course, Job would send and consecrate them, and he would rise early in the morning and offer burnt offerings according to the number of them all. For Job said, “It may be that my children have sinned, and cursed God in their hearts.” Thus Job did continually.
I understand that in the patriarchal period Job was acting as priest and representing his children before God and offering sacrifice for their sins. I understand that this is how the old administration of the covenant was carried out. I understand that Christ's substitutionary atonement did away with the economy of sacrifice.
What I want to know is how were Job's children forgiven independent of their own repentance? Is repentance implied? What would be a father's role under the new administration of the covenant that would parallel Job's offering? Is there a parallel?
I have two rebellious daughters, I envy Job's right to offer sacrifice for his children's sins. How can I apply this passage?
I understand that in the patriarchal period Job was acting as priest and representing his children before God and offering sacrifice for their sins. I understand that this is how the old administration of the covenant was carried out. I understand that Christ's substitutionary atonement did away with the economy of sacrifice.
What I want to know is how were Job's children forgiven independent of their own repentance? Is repentance implied? What would be a father's role under the new administration of the covenant that would parallel Job's offering? Is there a parallel?
I have two rebellious daughters, I envy Job's right to offer sacrifice for his children's sins. How can I apply this passage?