John 1:3

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weinhold

Puritan Board Freshman
Why does my Greek NT have a period before the relative pronoun at the end of John 1:3?

panta di autou egeneto, kai cwriV autou egeneto oude en. o gegonen
 
According to the apparatus in one of my Greek texts (which has the same punctuation) that is a variant in the punctuation. I am not aware of any English version that follows that punctuation, but my 1901 ASV includes the alternate in the margin:
... and without him was not anything made. That which hath been made was life in him; and the life was the light of men.
I won't say this is unintelligible, but is easy for me to see how the "regular way" is preferable.
 
I'm sorry to interrupt but does anyone know if there's a website I could go to to learn a bit of New Testament Greek? I can't exactly afford to go to Bible college right now.
 
Bruce,

It seems that in addition to issues of "readability," there is also a change in meaning when the verse is translated according to the 1901 ASV model. Thanks for pointing that out. I wonder, what do you make of the difference? Do you know of any resources that might help? Thanks!
 
Originally posted by BaptistCanuk
I'm sorry to interrupt but does anyone know if there's a website I could go to to learn a bit of New Testament Greek? I can't exactly afford to go to Bible college right now.
Go to my Favorite Links Page and scroll down to the Helps for New Testament Greek -- I've collected a number of online helps. You can start with Machen's.
 
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