John 1:9

[heartoflesh]

John 1:9 NASB
"There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man."

John 1:9 NKJV
"That was the true Light which gives light to every man coming into the world."

A question for you Greek scholars: Which rendering is more correct? Is it the True Light which comes into the world (NASB) or every man which comes into the world (NKJV)?

 

[govols]

Is the best rendering

"Or That was the true Light which, coming into the world, gives light to every man."?

 

[heartoflesh]

Originally posted by govols
Is the best rendering

"That was the true Light which, coming into the world, gives light to every man."?

What translation is that? It looks almost identical to the NASB.

 

[govols]

It is from my Greek - English interlinear bible.

 

[daveb]

Originally posted by Rick Larson
Which rendering is more correct? Is it the True Light which comes into the world (NASB) or every man which comes into the world (NKJV)?

It is "the true light comimg into the world". The "which gives light to every man" is a relative clause.

 

[heartoflesh]

Originally posted by govols
It is from my Greek - English interlinear bible.

I guess that would explain why it looks so close to the NASB.

It seems that the majority of translations favor the "Light" as coming into the world, but I know that the NKJV translators must have had good reason for their rendering.

 

[daveb]

The NKJV does not change the sentence order, the NASB version does. The literal rendering without changing the sentence order would be:

"That true light, which enlightens each man, coming into the world"

The meaning of both versions is the same, but the NASB is trying to be more clear in placing the clause at the end. You could also look at it this way:

"That true light (which enlightens each man) coming into the world"

 

[heartoflesh]

Originally posted by daveb
The NKJV does not change the sentence order, the NASB version does. The literal rendering without changing the sentence order would be:

"That true light, which enlightens each man, coming into the world"

The meaning of both versions is the same, but the NASB is trying to be more clear in placing the clause at the end. You could also look at it this way:

"That true light (which enlightens each man) coming into the world"

So the NKJV is just being more literal. I've always thought that the NKJV is the most literal translation. Take Philippians 2:6 for example: "...[he] did not consider it robbery to be equal with God ". "Robbery" is so literal that it seems to imply the opposite of what the passage intends to teach!