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[bible]John 17:5[/bible]
Can it be rightly said that in eternity past Jesus Christ did not receive glory from the Father, but that he shared glory with the Father? The latter is my understanding of the passage.
Of course. Being fully God, Himself, the glory He had in eternity is His own glory. All three Persons of the Trinity, being equally God, each has His own glory as God. And, since the three Persons interpenetrate each other (the doctrine of perichoresis), they also share each other's glory.
Thanks brother. I'm teaching on 1 Peter 1:20 and I making a point about Jesus' having glory in eternity past. Part of the προγινώσκω (foreknowledge) of Christ before the foundation of the world.