John 18:36

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Optimus

Puritan Board Freshman
John 18
36 Jesus answered, My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence.


Can i please get some reformed interpretations of the context of this passage.
 
"The kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord and of His Christ, and He will reign forever and ever!"

You sound like a credo, Forever ends? ( end of the millenuim):lb:

j/k

but seriously, could you adress this for me?
 
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but seriously, could you adress this for me?
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sorry for not bieng clear, i was reffering to the post mill postition which says the in the end of the millennium, the nations will be decieved, yet the verse quoted states that he will rule forever.....:bs2:
 
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because God allows satan to be loosed to deceive the nations it does not follow that Christ does not rule at that time.
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That does not mean that God gave up his sovereignty for that time.
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Not to irritate you, but couldnt the Amil use that same line of reasoning?
 
My understanding of the text is that Jesus is saying, "I know everybody thinks I'm here to overthrow the current powers and set up My kingdom to replace theirs, but I'm not. If My kingdom was here to displace yours at this time, then My soldiers would take up the same earthly weapons as yours and we'd being going at it right now. But since I'm not leading my disciples to fight against you, it follows that you're misunderstanding the type of Kingdom I'm setting up right now. My kingdom is not of this world. You can arrest me on the grounds that I'm starting a revolt against Caesar and the powers that be, but you'd be wrong."

My :wr50:
 
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I don't see what this has to do with your original question though?
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It has nothing to do with my original question, it was a new question. The more i read, the more questions i get.


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I thought you were asking that because you thought that verse disproved an earthly kingdom. Was I correct?
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correct.
 
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