John 3:16 Translation?

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Charles Purrgeon

Puritan Board Freshman
Hi all!

I am preaching a sermon on definite atonement soon, and want to talk about some objections that could come up, with one of the major ones being John 3:16. I know that the verse can be literally translated 'all the believing ones'. The question I have is: why don't any English translations seem to translate it like this? It is not a difficult phrase to understand, and doesn't seem that awkward to me. Wouldn't this help to clarify the verse better?

(I am not asking this to 'have a go' at Bible translators. Rather, I am trying to understand why the verse has not been translated this way).

Thank you. :)
 
The point of John 3:16 is the magnitude and vastness of God's love and yet some Calvinists spend 90% of their time trying to stress who is excluded from that love instead of getting the main point of the verse.
 
There is no logical difference between "whoever believes" and "all the believing ones." However you parse it, the logical result is the same: only those who believe will be saved, which, as @Pergamum said, is a real testament to the magnitude of God's love. Why would he save anyone?
 
Hi all!

I am preaching a sermon on definite atonement soon, and want to talk about some objections that could come up, with one of the major ones being John 3:16. I know that the verse can be literally translated 'all the believing ones'. The question I have is: why don't any English translations seem to translate it like this? It is not a difficult phrase to understand, and doesn't seem that awkward to me. Wouldn't this help to clarify the verse better?

(I am not asking this to 'have a go' at Bible translators. Rather, I am trying to understand why the verse has not been translated this way).

Thank you. :)
It can't be translated, "all the believing ones." It would be, "all the believing in him ones." Very awkward English.
 
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