John 6:37-40-- [i:ae496b29ec]All that the Father gives me[/i:ae496b29ec] will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out. For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will but the will of him who sent me. And this is the will of him who sent me, that [i:ae496b29ec]I should lose nothing of all that he has given me[/i:ae496b29ec], but raise it up on the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day. John 17:11-12-- And I am no longer in the world, but they are in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, keep them in your name, [i:ae496b29ec]which you have given me[/i:ae496b29ec], that they may be one, even as we are one. While I was with them, I kept them in your name, [i:ae496b29ec]which you have given me[/i:ae496b29ec]. I have guarded them, and not one of them has been lost [i:ae496b29ec]except the son of destruction[/i:ae496b29ec], that the Scripture might be fulfilled. How should we reconcile these passages? The first one says that it is the Father's will that Jesus lose none of what the Father has given him. But the second says that none of what Jesus had been given by the Father had been lost, EXCEPT the son of destruction. Or I guess a better way to put it is like this: Was Judas Iscariot one of those given to the Son by the Father? I plan to do some exegetical work in the Greek of these passages in the next couple of days, but for now I wanted to lay the question out on the table for everyone else's comments and ideas. I'm sure you can see the implications this question has for the traditional Calvinistic understanding of John 6. What do you guys think is going on in these passages?