Joseph and Mary's flight to Egypt and the Jewish diaspora

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I am just after listening to R. C. Sproul's sermon on The Slaughter of the Innocents and he mentioned that one of the reasons why Joseph and Mary fled to Egypt when Christ was as an infant was owing to the presence of a large Jewish community in that country. On the face of it, the argument does seem to make sense but I have never really considered it before hearing it now. Does anyone here have any thoughts on the matter or have you read any commentaries that agree with Dr Sproul on this question.
 
I am just after listening to R. C. Sproul's sermon on The Slaughter of the Innocents and he mentioned that one of the reasons why Joseph and Mary fled to Egypt when Christ was as an infant was owing to the presence of a large Jewish community in that country. On the face of it, the argument does seem to make sense but I have never really considered it before hearing it now. Does anyone here have any thoughts on the matter or have you read any commentaries that agree with Dr Sproul on this question.
It's pretty well attested. Many Jews went there during or after the Babylonian conquest (see Jer. 43). There was a significant Jewish population at Elephantine, complete with their own temple, who wrote letters to Jerusalem in the 5th century. Jews were in Alexandria from its founding by Alexander the Great, with their own district of the city in the time of the Ptolemies, and they formed a significant percentage of the population in the Roman era, including such well known names as Philo. According to the Letter of Aristeas, the Septuagint originated in Alexandria. And so on...
 
I am just after listening to R. C. Sproul's sermon on The Slaughter of the Innocents and he mentioned that one of the reasons why Joseph and Mary fled to Egypt when Christ was as an infant was owing to the presence of a large Jewish community in that country. On the face of it, the argument does seem to make sense but I have never really considered it before hearing it now. Does anyone here have any thoughts on the matter or have you read any commentaries that agree with Dr Sproul on this question.
I recall reading somewhere once where it was suggested Herrod’s genocide of boys under 2 years old was localized to edit: Bethlehem, which was a relatively small town. And there may have only been a dozen or so babies actually killed. I believe this was a suggestion for why Josephus didn’t account for this event.

There were of course Jewish settlements in Egypt, particularly Alexandria as early as the 3rd century BC, and there was a temple built.
 
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I recall reading somewhere once where it was suggested Herrod’s genocide of boys under 2 years old was localized to Nazareth, which was a relatively small town. And there may have only been a dozen or so babies actually killed. I believe this was a suggestion for why Josephus didn’t account for this event.

There were of course Jewish settlements in Egypt, particularly Alexandria as early as the 3rd century BC, and there was a temple built.
I think you mean Bethlehem (Matt. 2:16)
 
It's pretty well attested. Many Jews went there during or after the Babylonian conquest (see Jer. 43). There was a significant Jewish population at Elephantine, complete with their own temple, who wrote letters to Jerusalem in the 5th century. Jews were in Alexandria from its founding by Alexander the Great, with their own district of the city in the time of the Ptolemies, and they formed a significant percentage of the population in the Roman era, including such well known names as Philo. According to the Letter of Aristeas, the Septuagint originated in Alexandria. And so on...

Yes, I was aware of the Jewish presence in Egypt. What I found interesting, however, was RC's suggestion that it was one of the reasons for Joseph and Mary's flight to Egypt. I am wondering if anyone knows of any commentators who make the same or a similar argument.
 
Lightfoot makes a similar remark in his commentary.
"Departed into Egypt.] Egypt was now replenished with Jews above measure...
So provision was made for the poverty of Joseph and Mary, while they sojourned in Egypt (at Alexandria, probably), partly by selling the presents of the wise men for food and provision by the way; and partly by a supply of victuals from their country-folks in Egypt when they had need."
 
I recall reading somewhere once where it was suggested Herrod’s genocide of boys under 2 years old was localized to edit: Bethlehem, which was a relatively small town. And there may have only been a dozen or so babies actually killed. I believe this was a suggestion for why Josephus didn’t account for this event.

RC made a similar argument in the above sermon.
 
Lightfoot makes a similar remark in his commentary.
"Departed into Egypt.] Egypt was now replenished with Jews above measure...
So provision was made for the poverty of Joseph and Mary, while they sojourned in Egypt (at Alexandria, probably), partly by selling the presents of the wise men for food and provision by the way; and partly by a supply of victuals from their country-folks in Egypt when they had need."

Seems rather speculative.
 
I’m currently passing through Isaiah and am curious how Isaiah 18:18-24 might connect with this... thoughts?

Was this prophecy fulfilled prior to Christ’s coming and further drawn into fruition through Christ’s infancy and later Apostolic evangelism?
 
Seems rather speculative.
I think we can distinguish between fact and speculation (of which there is certainly a good deal in Lightfoot's remarks)
1) There was a large Jewish population in Egypt at this time (Fact)
2) That Jewish population would probably have provided some help for needy Jews who arrived. (Plausible speculation: we know that elsewhere Jews tended to support one another, and there is no reason to suppose Egypt was different)
3) Joseph and Mary sold the gifts of the wise men to help support themselves (Speculation. They may have sold them earlier to fund the trip to Egypt; they may have kept them as souvenirs; maybe the myrrh that was used for Jesus' burial was the same as the wise men brought...but that's even more speculative). On balance, it seems more probable than not that they sold these items at some point. Probably just as well, given the human tendency to venerate relics.

The piece that Lightfoot surprisingly doesn't mention is the fact that Joseph was not an unskilled laborers; Joseph was a carpenter, who likely could have found adequately paid work in Egypt to support the family, once they got established , especially given the potential contacts in the Jewish community. Again, that's speculation, but I don't see any reason why Mary and Joseph would have needed long term welfare in Egypt.
 
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