If God's wrath against the elect is appeased at the cross, and his justice is satisfied, would it not follow that at that point there is no more judicial wrath against the elect?
I'm struggling with the "provisional" aspect of the atonement. Obviously we are not imputed Christ's righteousness until saving faith is displayed (justification by faith alone). But in what way is God's wrath no longer against us? I mean, he doesn't see his Son's righteousness when he looks at us before faith is displayed, right?
The way I understand it, is that we are still unjust in God's sight (until faith), its just that his justice is satisfied.
Probably I am confused after reading so much Arminian theologies back in the day.
thanks,
Rembrandt
I'm struggling with the "provisional" aspect of the atonement. Obviously we are not imputed Christ's righteousness until saving faith is displayed (justification by faith alone). But in what way is God's wrath no longer against us? I mean, he doesn't see his Son's righteousness when he looks at us before faith is displayed, right?
The way I understand it, is that we are still unjust in God's sight (until faith), its just that his justice is satisfied.
Probably I am confused after reading so much Arminian theologies back in the day.
thanks,
Rembrandt