JBaldwin
Puritan Board Post-Graduate
I find it interesting that you use the word "language barrier" when talking about the KJV. This topic came up at church yesterday in our study of the Westminister standards.
Westminister Standards Chapter 1 part 8:
At what point does a language cease to be the "vulgar"?
To answer the question in the OP, I grew up on the KJV, and my pastor went through it verse by verse and explained difficult words in detail. However, I now use a variety of translations and find it difficult to go back to the KJV.
Westminister Standards Chapter 1 part 8:
The Old Testament in Hebrew (which was the native language of the people of God of old), and the New Testament in Greek (which at the time of the writing of it was most generally known to the nations), being immediately inspired by God, and by his singular care and providence kept pure in all ages, are therefore authentical;a so as in all controversies of religion the Church is finally to appeal unto them.b But because these original tongues are not known to all the people of God who have right unto, and interest in the Scriptures, and are commanded, in the fear of God, to read and search them,c therefore they are to be translated into the vulgar language of every nation unto which they come,d that the Word of God dwelling plentifully in all, they may worship him in an acceptable manner,e and, through patience and comfort of the Scriptures, may have hope.f
a. Mat 5:18. • b. Isa 8:20; John 5:39, 46; Acts 15:15. • c. John 5:39. • d. 1 Cor 14:6, 9, 11-12, 24, 27-28. • e. Col 3:16. • f. Rom 15:4.
At what point does a language cease to be the "vulgar"?
To answer the question in the OP, I grew up on the KJV, and my pastor went through it verse by verse and explained difficult words in detail. However, I now use a variety of translations and find it difficult to go back to the KJV.