BrianBowman
Posting Priviledges Revoked
Of late I notice many Scriptures quoted on the PuritanBoard are from the KJV and others cite the Textus Receptus as their preferred Greek Text. Perhaps this has already been discussed (and consequently someone could simply provide a thread reference), but it seems that the KJV is favored by some here. Could those who favor the KJV explain how their viewpoint converges/diverges with the typical "Right-Wing Fundy/Dispensational" who hold the KJV-only position?
Also, these often cite Dean Burgeon in defense of the textual-transmission heritage that the KJV is founded upon. Does his work truly refute the so-called advances in textual criticism of the past 150 years or so (i.e. the work of Westcott/Hort, the Alands, UBS, etc.) or is this simply an intramural argument concerning the which Bible presents whose pet doctrines more authoritatively?
Again, can someone present a cogent summary for the usage of the King James by some Modern Reformed Pastors/Scholars and do these men believe, like their fundamentalist counterparts, that the abhorrent problems in modern Evangelicalism can be traced to non-KJV Bible translations based on modern critical text work?
Also, these often cite Dean Burgeon in defense of the textual-transmission heritage that the KJV is founded upon. Does his work truly refute the so-called advances in textual criticism of the past 150 years or so (i.e. the work of Westcott/Hort, the Alands, UBS, etc.) or is this simply an intramural argument concerning the which Bible presents whose pet doctrines more authoritatively?
Again, can someone present a cogent summary for the usage of the King James by some Modern Reformed Pastors/Scholars and do these men believe, like their fundamentalist counterparts, that the abhorrent problems in modern Evangelicalism can be traced to non-KJV Bible translations based on modern critical text work?