ValiantforTruth
Puritan Board Freshman
Suppose a man, through carelessness and/or laziness, consistently failed to provide for his family. Would this constitute lawful grounds for divorce, similar to abandonment? Assume he is not under the oversight of a church, nor amenable to arguments from Scripture that would instruct him to change his behavior.
The extremely tricky part seems to be that "failure to provide" is a continuum problem, whereas abandonment is usually true/false.
The extremely tricky part seems to be that "failure to provide" is a continuum problem, whereas abandonment is usually true/false.