Leavened bread at the Passover/Last Supper? Why not ἄζυμος in v26?

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Tirian

Puritan Board Sophomore
Matthew 26:26 And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, blessed and broke it, and gave it to the disciples and said, “Take, eat; this is My body.”

This portion directly follows a discussion of the Passover celebrated by Jesus and His disciples.

I'm assuming this is one and the same event - Passover/Last Supper. Is there any significance in the Greek word ἄρτος for leavened bread being used here rather than unleavened bread ἄζυμος in v26?

Is the use of "unleavened bread" in v26 an indicator that Passover and the Last Supper we two different events for our Lord and the disciples just prior to His arrest?
 
It could be a hint to the NT church that it no longer matters what sort of bread we should use in our sacramental meal.

Jesus and the Twelve disciples may have (likely) used the unleavened bread on the table for the first Lord's Supper, but the form of bread is no longer of any special significance to how we rehearse the Supper. This is an obvious change from OT ritual observance.
 
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