Puritan Board Freshman
"fornication as is not so much as named among the Gentiles, that one should have his father's wife". Why are you so certain that he married her, that the father had also married her, that the father was dead, and that she was not his mother? There are quite a few ways in which the actions described in 1 Cor. 5:1 could be understood as immoral within my framework that do not require marriage to be marriage after death.?!!?!!?!!?!
False. By this standard, the man in 1 Corinthians should not have come under discipline for marrying his father's wife.