Lord's Day or Day of the Lord?

[TylerRay]

Friends,

I just wrote a short piece on my blog vindicating the classical Reformed understanding of John's use of the term "Lord's Day" in Revelation 1:10 against the misconstruction of the Jehovah's Witnesses and others. You may read about it here: Lord's Day or Day of the Lord?

 

[timfost]

Thanks for the article.

Why do the JWs dispute this wording? I know that the SDA church makes OT parallels with the wording to prove that John was speaking to Saturday Sabbath.

Thanks!

 

[Marrow Man]

I actually referenced John 1:10 this past Lord's Day (!) when I preached on 1 Thessalonians 5:1-3. However, I did so only in the sense that believers in Christ do not need to fear the coming Day of the Lord (that is, the Day of Christ), because He has already endured the wrath in our place, something we rejoice in every Lord's Day. Instead of a day of wrath, it has become a day of salvation for us, because of Christ.

 

[Ed Walsh]

Instead of a day of wrath, it has become a day of salvation for us, because of Christ.

Amen! I wish everyone on the PB list knew this wonderful truth.

2 Thessalonians 1:7-10
7 And to you who are troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels,
8 In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ:
9 Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power;
10 When he shall come to be glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe (because our testimony among you was believed) in that day.

The one event has two very different results. Verse 10 is our response to His coming.

I am not a big fan of the ESV (I have read it through at least 2 times) but I love the word ‘marveled’ in verse 10 below:

10 when he comes on that day to be glorified in his saints, and to be marveled at among all who have believed, because our testimony to you was believed.

 

[TylerRay]

\Why do the JWs dispute this wording?

Two reasons come to mind:
1. Their doctrine won't allow for a Sabbath in the New Testament. They are convinced that the Ten Commandments are part of what has been put away by Christ.

2. To acknowledge that John is talking about a Sabbath to be kept holy to Christ in the same way that the OT Sabbath was to be kept holy to Jehovah is to acknowledge the divine prerogatives (indeed the divinity) of Christ.

I'll probably do another blog post with some further thoughts. If I do, I'll try to elaborate more on what the aversion is to the orthodox reading.

 

[timfost]

Thanks, Tyler. As bizarre as the doctrines of the cults are, I try to know some of the nuances of their positions so that I can lead conversations with them away from their talking points and back to Christ.

Blessings,