JimmyH
Puritan Board Senior
I have been reading the AV, the NASB, the NKJV and the ESV alternately and I'm stumped at how the ESV could have interpreted the "must not" where the aforementioned translations do not state it as an imperative.
AV; 15 For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink;
NKJV; 15 For he will be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink.
NASB: 15 For he will be great in the sight of the Lord; and he will drink no wine or liquor,
ESV; 15 for he will be great before the Lord. And he must not drink wine or strong drink,
Can anyone with a knowledge of the original languages enlighten me on the merit of the ESV translator's choice of words in this instance ?
AV; 15 For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink;
NKJV; 15 For he will be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink.
NASB: 15 For he will be great in the sight of the Lord; and he will drink no wine or liquor,
ESV; 15 for he will be great before the Lord. And he must not drink wine or strong drink,
Can anyone with a knowledge of the original languages enlighten me on the merit of the ESV translator's choice of words in this instance ?