cornelius vantil
Puritan Board Freshman
ok andreas you brought up the apocalyptic language found in the nt and say that they could not be used to describe the fall of jerusalem but have to be refering to the end of history. while it is possible that you are correct, i would suggest we look at other places in scripture where similar language is used and see if this thesis hold any water.
1. here is how Isa. describes the fall of bablyon
"9 See, the day of the LORD is coming
"”a cruel day, with wrath and fierce anger"”
to make the land desolate
and destroy the sinners within it.
10 The stars of heaven and their constellations
will not show their light.
The rising sun will be darkened
and the moon will not give its light." Isa.13:9-10
2. the fall of Edom
"4 All the stars of the heavens will be dissolved
and the sky rolled up like a scroll;
all the starry host will fall
like withered leaves from the vine,
like shriveled figs from the fig tree.
5 My sword has drunk its fill in the heavens;
see, it descends in judgment on Edom,
the people I have totally destroyed." Isa.34:4-5
3. the fall of egypt
" 7 When I snuff you out, I will cover the heavens
and darken their stars;
I will cover the sun with a cloud,
and the moon will not give its light.
8 All the shining lights in the heavens
I will darken over you;
I will bring darkness over your land,
declares the Sovereign LORD." Ezk. 32:7-8
in these and in many other passages the fall of kingdoms are described in apocolyptic language. so now the question is would 1st century jews have understood the apocolyptic language that Jesus used any diffrent than how it was used in the rest of scripture? i would argue no just as the prophets used this type of language to describes the fall of gentile kingdoms Jesus used it to described the fall of jerusalem.
1. here is how Isa. describes the fall of bablyon
"9 See, the day of the LORD is coming
"”a cruel day, with wrath and fierce anger"”
to make the land desolate
and destroy the sinners within it.
10 The stars of heaven and their constellations
will not show their light.
The rising sun will be darkened
and the moon will not give its light." Isa.13:9-10
2. the fall of Edom
"4 All the stars of the heavens will be dissolved
and the sky rolled up like a scroll;
all the starry host will fall
like withered leaves from the vine,
like shriveled figs from the fig tree.
5 My sword has drunk its fill in the heavens;
see, it descends in judgment on Edom,
the people I have totally destroyed." Isa.34:4-5
3. the fall of egypt
" 7 When I snuff you out, I will cover the heavens
and darken their stars;
I will cover the sun with a cloud,
and the moon will not give its light.
8 All the shining lights in the heavens
I will darken over you;
I will bring darkness over your land,
declares the Sovereign LORD." Ezk. 32:7-8
in these and in many other passages the fall of kingdoms are described in apocolyptic language. so now the question is would 1st century jews have understood the apocolyptic language that Jesus used any diffrent than how it was used in the rest of scripture? i would argue no just as the prophets used this type of language to describes the fall of gentile kingdoms Jesus used it to described the fall of jerusalem.