sastark
Puritan Board Graduate
So I just read through the entire "Sex as the seal of the Marriage Covenant" thread, and noticed that several times reference was made to Joseph being called Mary's husband in Matt. 1:19 and then to Mary being called Joseph's wife in Matt. 1:20. I was curious, so I looked up these passages at http://www.olivetree.com/cgi-bin/EnglishBible.htm and found that the Greek word for "husband" (Strong's #435) can mean "male", "husband", OR "betrothed or future husband." Likewise, the Greek word for "wife" in Matt 1:20 (Strong's #1135) can mean "a woman of any age, whether a virgin, or married, or a widow", "a wife", OR "a betrothed woman."
I am not a Greek scholar and don't claim to be one, so I am not going to die for this cause, BUT, could some one please show why in Matt 1:19 the greek is translated "husband" and in Matt 1:20, the greek is translated "wife" and not "betrothed to be husband" and "betrothed to be wife"?
I would refer everyone to Matt 1:18, Luke 1:27, and Luke 2:5 for instances where it is clearly stated that Mary was betrothed to Joseph and they were not yet husband and wife. And of special note is Luke 2:5 which establishes that Joseph and Mary were not yet married at the time they went to Bethlehem.
I am not a Greek scholar and don't claim to be one, so I am not going to die for this cause, BUT, could some one please show why in Matt 1:19 the greek is translated "husband" and in Matt 1:20, the greek is translated "wife" and not "betrothed to be husband" and "betrothed to be wife"?
I would refer everyone to Matt 1:18, Luke 1:27, and Luke 2:5 for instances where it is clearly stated that Mary was betrothed to Joseph and they were not yet husband and wife. And of special note is Luke 2:5 which establishes that Joseph and Mary were not yet married at the time they went to Bethlehem.